Nursing Elites

1. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

2. Which of the following is responsible for laws mandating the reporting of certain infections and diseases?

• A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
• B. individual state laws
• C. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
• D. Health and Human Services (HHS)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individual state laws mandate the reporting of infectious diseases. The list of reportable diseases varies from state to state and is overseen by state health departments. While the CDC plays a significant role in disease surveillance, reporting infectious diseases is primarily governed by individual state laws. The CDC's role is to provide support, guidance, and expertise to state health departments. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) primarily focus on biomedical and health-related research, not on mandating disease reporting. Health and Human Services (HHS) is a federal department that oversees various agencies, but the responsibility for mandating disease reporting lies with individual states.

3. A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?

• A. diced fruit
• B. apple juice with a liquid thickener
• C.
• D. toast

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

5. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation to assess for airway obstruction, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's ability to speak. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed, allowing air to pass through the vocal cords for speech production. Choices B, C, and D are not the primary assessments for determining airway obstruction. Assessing the ability to hear is not directly related to an airway obstruction. While oxygen saturation and adventitious breath sounds are important in respiratory assessments, they are not the initial indicators of an airway obstruction. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, and adventitious breath sounds refer to abnormal lung sounds that may indicate conditions like pneumonia or bronchitis, but they do not specifically confirm airway patency.

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