NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?
- A. circadian rhythm
- B. infradian rhythm
- C. ultradian rhythm
- D. non-REM rhythm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.
2. During shift change, a nurse is giving report to the oncoming LPN. Which of these is an inappropriate way to give shift report?
- A. The nurse gives report to the oncoming LPN, checking a wound vac and dressing together.
- B. The nurse reports in SBAR format, noting that the client was noncompliant with their diet during the shift.
- C. The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.
- D. The nurse reports at bedside with the oncoming LPN and discusses the client's concerns after the chart has been reviewed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The nurse reports in the hallway, in SBAR format, and alerts the oncoming LPN about how rude the client was throughout the shift.' This choice is inappropriate because shift report should be given at the bedside, in SBAR format, and in an objective way. It is important to maintain professionalism and focus on the client's condition and care needs, rather than personal opinions or subjective comments. Reporting in the hallway may compromise patient privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate appropriate ways of giving shift report by focusing on relevant information, using SBAR format, and discussing client concerns after reviewing the chart, which promotes effective communication and continuity of care.
3. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?
- A. ice chips
- B. Jell-O�
- C. pudding
- D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O�, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O� provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.
4. A client scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. The nurse should take which action?
- A. Tape the wedding band in place
- B. Ask the client to sign a release freeing the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery
- C. Explain to the client why the wedding band must be removed
- D. Ask the client whether she would like to remove the wedding band or wear it to surgery
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In most situations, a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if there is a possibility that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is usually asked to sign a form that releases the agency from responsibility if a client's valuables are lost. After a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which can result in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why. This ensures the client's safety and prevents potential complications. Option A is incorrect because taping the wedding band may not be sufficient if swelling occurs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to remove the wedding band. Option D is incorrect because it fails to provide the client with the necessary information about the potential risks of wearing the wedding band during surgery.
5. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?
- A. coma
- B. edema
- C. hypoxia
- D. polyuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access