Nursing Elites

1. A 20-year-old male client had a diving accident with subsequent paraplegia. He says to the nurse, "No woman will ever want to marry me now."? Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic?

• A. "Don't worry. Maybe you'll meet a paraplegic woman."?
• B. "There is someone for everyone in this world."?
• C. "You are still an attractive man, even though you can't walk."?
• D. "Tell me more about your feelings on this issue."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is 'Tell me more about your feelings on this issue.' This answer is the most therapeutic as it encourages the client to express his emotions and concerns, fostering a supportive and open dialogue between the client and the nurse. Option A may come across as dismissive and does not directly address the client's emotional state. Option B, while positive, oversimplifies the client's complex feelings. Option C focuses only on physical appearance, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the client's emotional well-being. Therefore, the most therapeutic response is to encourage further discussion about the client's feelings.

2. Which is an appropriate outcome for the nursing diagnosis of Body Image Disturbance for a client with anorexia nervosa?

• A. The client verbalizes knowledge of a maintenance diet.
• B. The client demonstrates assertiveness with family.
• C. The client verbalizes her body size accurately.
• D. The client demonstrates control of obsessive behaviors.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client verbalizes her body size accurately.' For clients with anorexia nervosa, body image disturbance is a common issue where they perceive themselves inaccurately. Verbalizing her body size accurately indicates progress towards correcting this distorted self-perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the distorted body image perception seen in clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice A focuses on knowledge of a maintenance diet, which is unrelated to body image perception. Choice B involves assertiveness with family, which is more related to family dynamics. Choice D addresses control of obsessive behaviors, which is not directly related to correcting the distorted body image perception.

3. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Retape the NG tube.
• B. Clamp the NG tube.
• C. Remove the NG tube.
• D. Check the NG tube placement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting, the nurse should first check the NG tube placement. Vomiting can be a sign of tube displacement, which can lead to serious complications. Retaping the tube (Choice A), clamping it (Choice B), or removing it (Choice C) without first assessing its placement can be harmful or ineffective. Checking the NG tube placement is crucial as it ensures that the tube is in the correct position and prevents potential complications. Retaping the NG tube (Choice A) is incorrect because the priority is to check the placement first. Clamping the NG tube (Choice B) or removing it (Choice C) without verifying the placement can be dangerous if the tube is dislodged. Thus, these actions should not be taken before confirming the tube's position.

4. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:

• A. identifying risks.
• B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
• C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
• D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.

5. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?

• A. circadian rhythm
• B. infradian rhythm
• C. ultradian rhythm
• D. non-REM rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.

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