a client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

2. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

3. The graduate licensed practical nurse is assigned to care for the client on ventilator support, pending organ donation. Which goal should receive priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When caring for a client on ventilator support pending organ donation, maintaining the systolic blood pressure at 70mmHg or greater is crucial to ensure a proper blood supply to the donor organ. This goal is a priority to maintain the viability of the organ for donation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are unnecessary and not directly related to the immediate goal of organ donation. Maintaining urinary output, body temperature, or hematocrit levels are not the primary concerns in this situation.

4. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.

5. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.

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