Nursing Elites

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

2. Which of the following enzymes is indicative of pancreatitis?

• A. alkaline phosphatase
• B. acid phosphatase
• C. creatine phosphokinase
• D. amylase

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amylase is elevated in conditions of pancreatic inflammation, such as pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is characterized by the inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the leakage of amylase into the bloodstream. Elevated levels of amylase are a key diagnostic marker for pancreatitis. Alkaline phosphatase is associated with liver and bone conditions, not pancreatitis. Acid phosphatase is more related to prostate health and is not specific to pancreatitis. Creatine phosphokinase is found in tissues like muscle and brain, and elevated levels are seen in conditions like muscle injury or heart attack, not pancreatitis.

3. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

• A. moving calcium from bones to the bloodstream
• B. inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus
• C. promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
• D. enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.

4. When assessing a client's mobility status, the physical examination should start with:

• A. examining their gait.
• B. orienting to time, place, and person.
• C. performing the Romberg test.
• D. conducting the Tandem Walk test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's mobility status, it is crucial to start by examining their gait. Gait assessment is usually conducted as the client walks into the room. Normal gait is described as smooth, flowing, and rhythmic without the need for assistive devices. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard practice of beginning the assessment of mobility status with gait examination.

5. Which of the following statements by an adult child of a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

• A. "I should provide a regular schedule for toileting."?
• B. "I should talk to my father less because he can't communicate."?
• C. "I should give my father oral care after every meal and bedtime."?
• D. "I should assist my father with eating and drinking."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In late-stage Alzheimer's disease, although verbal communication may be challenging or limited, it is essential to maintain communication through talking and non-verbal cues like touching. Limiting communication can lead to feelings of isolation and worsen the emotional well-being of the individual. Choices A, C, and D reflect appropriate care strategies by addressing toileting needs, oral care, and assistance with eating and drinking, which are crucial aspects of caregiving for a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease.

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