a client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

2. Major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care include:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In providing end-of-life care, nurses must possess essential competencies. Demonstrating respect and compassion, along with applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client, are crucial competencies. These skills help create a supportive and empathetic environment for individuals facing end-of-life situations. Choice B is incorrect because while assessing and intervening are important, they do not encompass the core competencies required for end-of-life care. Choice C is also incorrect; although setting goals and expectations is valuable, the primary focus should be on providing compassionate care. Choice D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.

3. When managing time effectively, which of the following stimuli should the nurse respond to first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to attend to the care needs of the returning postoperative client just exiting the elevator first. In a healthcare setting, patient care should always take precedence, especially for complex or unstable clients requiring immediate assessment and care. The physician's loud verbal direction, the nursing supervisor going to a meeting, and unit staff leaving on a break are important but do not involve direct patient care. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize responding to the returning postoperative client to ensure their immediate needs are met.

4. How often should physical restraints be released?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

5. Which of the following medications might cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Naprosyn (naproxen) is known to cause upper-gastrointestinal (UGI) bleeding due to its effects on the stomach lining. Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate the stomach and increase the risk of UGI bleeding. On the other hand, Cardizem (diltiazem), Elavil (amitriptyline), and Corgard (nadolol) are not typically associated with UGI bleeding. Cardizem is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and angina, Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant, and Corgard is a beta-blocker used for hypertension.

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