Nursing Elites

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.

2. What is the role of the incident report in risk management?

• A. Liability protection.
• B. To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.
• C. To discipline staff for errors.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.' Incident reports are a crucial tool for collecting information about incidents to analyze them and prevent similar issues in the future. They are not primarily used for liability protection or disciplining staff. Therefore, choices A and C are incorrect. Selecting 'All of the above' (choice D) is not accurate as incident reports serve a specific purpose related to data analysis and risk prevention, excluding liability protection and staff discipline.

3. A nurse is planning client assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the nursing assistant (unlicensed assistive personnel)?

• A. Recording the urinary output for a client with renal calculi whose urine must be strained
• B. Dressing change instructions for a client who had a mastectomy 2 days ago
• C. Reporting abnormal lab values to the health care provider for a client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
• D. Preprocedural teaching for a client scheduled for a cardiac stress test

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse is legally responsible for client assignments and must assign tasks based on state nursing practice act guidelines and job descriptions provided by the employing agency. The nursing assistant is trained to measure, collect, and strain urine, making recording urinary output for a client with renal calculi a suitable task for the nursing assistant. This task falls within the nursing assistant's role description. Dressing change instructions for a client who had a mastectomy involve a higher level of skill and knowledge, beyond the scope of a nursing assistant. Reporting abnormal lab values to the health care provider for a client scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy requires interpretation and clinical judgment, which is typically not within the nursing assistant's role. Preprocedural teaching for a client scheduled for a cardiac stress test involves providing detailed information and education, which is usually the responsibility of a licensed nurse or other qualified healthcare provider.

4. Following abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. What is the purpose of this tube immediately after surgery?

• A. simplify medication administration
• B. measure accurate input and output
• C. prevent accumulation of fluids and gas
• D. facilitate collection of specimens

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to prevent accumulation of fluids and gas. Immediately after abdominal surgery, the NG tube is used to keep the stomach decompressed, preventing the accumulation of fluids and gas. This helps in maintaining decompression to prevent surgical-site disruption and fluid loss through vomiting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary purpose of the NG tube following abdominal surgery is to prevent complications related to fluid and gas build-up rather than simplifying medication administration, measuring input and output, or collecting specimens.

5. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

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