NCLEX-PN
Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet
1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with cirrhosis is at risk for developing a high ammonia level due to impaired liver function. The liver normally converts ammonia into urea for excretion. In cirrhosis, this process is compromised, leading to elevated ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure, psoriasis, and lupus do not typically cause high ammonia levels. Renal failure affects kidney function, while psoriasis and lupus are autoimmune conditions that do not directly impact ammonia metabolism.
2. A client is diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following antiviral drug classes are used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. all of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All of the provided choices are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as tenofovir and emtricitabine, work by interfering with the virus's ability to replicate. Protease inhibitors, like atazanavir and darunavir, block an enzyme that HIV needs to make copies of itself. HIV fusion inhibitors, for instance, enfuvirtide, prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, 'all of the above' is the correct answer as all the listed drug classes are commonly used in managing HIV infections. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of antiretroviral therapy for HIV, targeting different stages of the virus's life cycle. The combination of drugs from these classes is often recommended to effectively control HIV replication and reduce viral load.
3. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?
- A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
- B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
- C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
- D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.
4. The client is being taught about the use of Rifampin for prophylaxis following exposure to meningitis. What change in bodily functions should the client be informed about?
- A. The client's urine may turn blue.
- B. The client remains infectious to others for 48 hours.
- C. The client's contact lenses may be stained orange.
- D. The client's skin may take on a crimson glow.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin has the unusual effect of turning body fluids an orange color. Soft contact lenses might become permanently stained. Clients should be taught about these side effects to avoid unnecessary concern. Option A is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the urine to turn blue. Option B is incorrect as the client is not infectious to others due to taking Rifampin for prophylaxis. Option D is incorrect as Rifampin does not cause the skin to take on a crimson glow.
5. When a 17-year-old client arrives at the clinic suspecting a sexually transmitted infection, what information does the nurse provide concerning informed consent?
- A. She will need to sign an informed consent form.
- B. Her mother or father will need to be contacted for permission to treat her.
- C. A consent form is not needed if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection.
- D. Anyone over the age of 18 years may sign a consent form for her treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent is a person's agreement to allow something, such as a treatment, to be performed. A consent form is required even if the problem is a sexually transmitted infection. If the client is a minor, the minor may sign the informed consent form in specific situations, including seeking treatment for a sexually transmitted infection. In this case, the 17-year-old client is seeking examination and treatment for a sexually transmitted infection, so she will need to sign the informed consent form. Contacting her parents for permission is not required in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because a consent form is necessary regardless of the medical issue. Choice D is incorrect because the individual's age is not the determining factor; rather, it is the nature of the medical service being sought that dictates the need for informed consent.
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