a client is 2 days post operative colon resection after a coughing episode the clients wound eviscerates which nursing action is most appropriate
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.

2. The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin (phenytoin). Which of the following statements by the patient's mother indicates to the nurse that the patient is experiencing a side effect of Dilantin therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is '"Her gums look too big for her teeth."?' Hyperplasia of the gums is a known side effect associated with Dilantin therapy. Option A, '"She is very irritable lately,"?' is not a typical side effect of Dilantin. Option B, '"She sleeps quite a bit of the time,"?' is a common side effect of Dilantin but not specific to gum hyperplasia. Option D, '"She has gained about 10 pounds in the last 6 months,"?' is not typically associated with Dilantin therapy and is unrelated to the question.

3. A client is admitted to the acute care unit. Initial laboratory values reveal serum sodium of 170meq/L. What behavior changes would be most common for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Mania.' A client with a serum sodium level of 170 meq/L has hypernatremia, which can lead to manic behavior. Hypernatremia is associated with irritability, restlessness, confusion, and in severe cases, manic symptoms. Choices A, C, and D (Anger, Depression, Psychosis) are not typically associated with hypernatremia and are, therefore, incorrect in this context.

4. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

5. A client has rectal cancer and is scheduled for an abdominal perineal resection. What should be the priority nursing care during the post-op period?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing care during the post-op period for a client who underwent an abdominal perineal resection is to facilitate perineal wound drainage. This is crucial for preventing infection of the surgical site and promoting healing. Teaching perineal wound care techniques, as in choice A, is more appropriate than ileostomy care in this scenario. While monitoring electrolyte levels is important, it is not the priority compared to ensuring proper wound drainage, making choice B less crucial. Encouraging early ambulation, as in choice C, is beneficial but not as critical as facilitating wound drainage immediately post-op.

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