a client is 2 days post operative colon resection after a coughing episode the clients wound eviscerates which nursing action is most appropriate
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. A client is 2 days post-operative colon resection. After a coughing episode, the client's wound eviscerates. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a client's wound eviscerates, the most appropriate nursing action is to cover the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing. Reinserting the protruding organ, as mentioned in choice A, is incorrect because it can lead to further complications requiring the client to return to surgery. Choice B, covering the wound with a sterile 4x4 and ABD dressing, is not ideal as it may not provide adequate protection and moisture for the exposed tissue. Choice D, applying an abdominal binder and manual pressure to the wound, is inappropriate as it does not address the specific needs of wound evisceration. Covering the wound with a sterile saline-soaked dressing helps maintain a moist environment, protects the exposed tissue, and prevents infection, promoting optimal wound healing and reducing the risk of complications.

2. An adult who had been abused as a child is discussing the group therapy program. Which statement indicates that the client has gained insight?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates insight gained by the client regarding their emotional state. Recognizing deep-seated anger that was previously unrecognized indicates progress in understanding their emotions and the impact of past abuse. Choice A reflects a sense of loneliness due to an inability to share about the abuse, which does not directly address emotional insight. Choice C shows progress in addressing relationships but does not specifically relate to emotional awareness. Choice D acknowledges shared experiences but does not reflect personal emotional growth or insight.

3. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.

4. The physician has ordered a culture for the client with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain which type of culture?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A culture for gonorrhea is taken from the genital secretions as gonorrhea primarily affects the genital area. The culture is incubated in a warm environment to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacterium causing gonorrhea. Genital secretions provide a direct sample from the site of infection, increasing the accuracy of diagnosis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not suitable specimens for diagnosing gonorrhea. Blood cultures are used to detect bloodstream infections, nasopharyngeal secretions are collected for respiratory infections, and stool cultures are done to identify gastrointestinal infections, none of which are related to gonorrhea.

5. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

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