HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client has suspected compartment syndrome of the right lower leg. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Elevate the right leg to reduce swelling.
- B. Loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg.
- C. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
- D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a suspected case of compartment syndrome, the nurse's priority intervention is to loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg. This action helps to relieve pressure within the affected compartment, improve circulation, and prevent permanent damage. Elevating the leg may further increase pressure, preparing for emergency surgery is premature without proper assessment and diagnosis, and administering pain medication should come after addressing the primary issue of relieving pressure.
2. Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?
- A. Avoid all protein-rich foods.
- B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day.
- C. Increase potassium intake to prevent weakness.
- D. Eat small, frequent meals high in carbohydrates.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important dietary instruction for a client with renal disease is to limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day. This is essential to prevent fluid overload, manage electrolyte balance, and reduce strain on the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because while protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, avoiding all protein-rich foods is not recommended as some protein intake is essential for overall health. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake is generally not advised for clients with renal disease, as they often need to limit potassium intake. Choice D is also incorrect because while consuming small, frequent meals may be helpful, emphasizing a diet high in carbohydrates is not typically the primary focus for clients with renal disease.
3. A client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
- B. Assess for changes in the client’s muscle strength.
- C. Administer prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
- D. Educate the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Administering prescribed corticosteroids to reduce inflammation is the priority action when a client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation. Corticosteroids help manage symptoms during exacerbations and reduce inflammation. Monitoring vital signs and assessing muscle strength are important aspects of care but not the priority during an acute exacerbation. Educating the client on managing fatigue and preventing relapses is essential but can be addressed after the acute exacerbation has been managed.
4. The nurse administers an antibiotic for a respiratory tract infection. To evaluate the medication's effectiveness, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Platelet count and red blood cell count.
- B. White blood cell count and sputum culture.
- C. Hemoglobin A1c and glucose tolerance test.
- D. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: White blood cell count and sputum culture. Monitoring white blood cell count and sputum cultures is essential to assess the effectiveness of the antibiotic in treating the respiratory tract infection. Changes in white blood cell count can indicate the body's response to infection, while sputum cultures help determine if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogens causing the infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because platelet count, red blood cell count, hemoglobin A1c, glucose tolerance test, arterial blood gases, and serum electrolytes are not directly related to evaluating the effectiveness of an antibiotic in treating a respiratory tract infection.
5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
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