HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. When conducting diet teaching for a client on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?
- A. Yogurt, milk, and pudding
- B. Tea, lentils, and potato soup
- C. Ice cream, broth, and fruit smoothies
- D. Orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A full liquid diet includes foods that are liquid or will turn liquid at room temperature. Yogurt, milk, and pudding are appropriate choices as they align with the consistency requirements of a full liquid diet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tea, lentils, potato soup, ice cream, fruit smoothies, orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese are not typically part of a full liquid diet. These options either contain solid elements or are not in liquid form, which makes them unsuitable for a postoperative full liquid diet.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which intervention is most important to promote effective breathing?
- A. Encourage diaphragmatic breathing
- B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
- C. Have the client perform range of motion exercises
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging diaphragmatic breathing is crucial in clients with COPD as it helps improve lung expansion and oxygen exchange, promoting more effective breathing. This intervention aids in reducing dyspnea and enhancing ventilation. Increasing the client's oxygen flow rate may not be appropriate and can potentially worsen hypercapnia in individuals with COPD. Performing range of motion exercises and placing the client in a supine position do not directly address the breathing difficulties associated with COPD exacerbation.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes reports blurry vision. What is the most important assessment the nurse should perform?
- A. Assess the client’s most recent blood glucose levels.
- B. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
- C. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypertension.
- D. Examine the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Blurry vision in clients with type 1 diabetes may indicate hyperglycemia, which requires prompt assessment of recent blood glucose levels to determine the cause and appropriate intervention. Checking the client’s hemoglobin A1C level (Choice B) is useful for assessing long-term glucose control, not for immediate management of blurry vision. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice C) is important in diabetes care but is not the most crucial assessment when blurry vision is reported. Examining the client’s feet for signs of neuropathy (Choice D) is important in diabetic foot care but is not the priority when dealing with blurry vision.
4. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
- B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.
5. After a spider bite on the lower extremity, a client is admitted to treat an infection that is spreading up the leg. Which admission assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin
- B. Core body temperature of 100.5°F
- C. All of the above
- D. Elevated white blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: All of the above findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and treatment. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin indicate regional lymphatic involvement, a core body temperature of 100.5°F suggests a mild fever response, and an elevated white blood cell count indicates an ongoing infection process. These findings collectively point towards the spread of infection and require immediate attention to prevent further complications.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access