HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client has driven himself to the emergency department. He is 50 years old, has a history of hypertension, and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at age 60. The client has indigestion. The nurse connects him to an electrocardiogram monitor and begins administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Call for the physician.
- B. Start an IV infusion.
- C. Obtain a portable chest radiograph.
- D. Draw blood for laboratory studies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client presenting with possible myocardial infarction who is receiving oxygen therapy and cardiac monitoring, the next priority action is to establish IV access by starting an IV infusion. This allows for prompt administration of medications and fluids as needed in the management of acute coronary syndromes. Calling the physician (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate next step. Obtaining a portable chest radiograph (Choice C) may help in further assessment but is not as crucial as establishing IV access. Drawing blood for laboratory studies (Choice D) is important for diagnostic purposes but is not as urgent compared to starting an IV infusion in the setting of a potential myocardial infarction.
2. A client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) 0.04 mg/kg q12 hours IV is prescribed. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
- A. Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.
- B. High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure.
- C. Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion.
- D. Social isolation related to inability to communicate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client on a mechanical ventilator receiving vecuronium bromide is 'Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.' Vecuronium is a skeletal muscle relaxant that causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to the inability of the client to communicate effectively. This is a crucial nursing concern as it impacts the client's ability to express needs and participate in care. Option B 'High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure' is not the priority in this scenario as the client's condition is related to the effects of the medication and mechanical ventilation, not directly to increased intracranial pressure. Option C 'Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion' is important but not the priority over impaired communication. Option D 'Social isolation related to inability to communicate' is not the priority nursing diagnosis in this situation as it focuses more on psychosocial aspects rather than the immediate physiological concern of communication impairment.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my medication only when I have chest pain.
- B. I will follow a heart-healthy diet and exercise regularly.
- C. I will avoid smoking and limit alcohol intake.
- D. I will contact my doctor if I experience chest pain or shortness of breath.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The statement indicates a misunderstanding because medication for CAD should be taken as prescribed, not only when chest pain occurs.
4. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
- B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
- C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
- D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.
5. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:
- A. Back of the mouth.
- B. Nose.
- C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
- D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.
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