HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
- B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
- C. Wear prescription glasses
- D. Eat a diet high in carotene
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.
2. A client who was in a motor vehicle collision was admitted to the hospital, and the right knee was placed in skeletal traction. The nurse has documented this nursing diagnosis in the client's medical record: 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction.' Which nursing intervention is indicated based on this diagnosis statement?
- A. Release the traction every 4 hours to provide skin care.
- B. Turn the client for back care while suspending traction.
- C. Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
- D. Give back care after the client is released from traction.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing intervention indicated based on the nursing diagnosis 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction' is to provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction. This intervention is crucial for maintaining the client's skin integrity and preventing potential complications. Releasing the traction every 4 hours (Choice A) may disrupt the treatment plan and compromise the effectiveness of traction. Turning the client for back care while suspending traction (Choice B) does not address the need for skin care while the client is in traction. Giving back care after the client is released from traction (Choice D) neglects the immediate need to prevent skin impairment while in traction. Therefore, providing back and skin care while maintaining the traction (Choice C) is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.
3. Which clients are at risk for kidney problems? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Clients taking synthetic creatine supplements
- B. Clients taking metformin for diabetes mellitus
- C. Clients taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chronic back pain
- D. Clients taking prenatal vitamins and using albuterol nebulizers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients who take synthetic creatine supplements, metformin, and high-dose or long-term NSAIDs are at risk for kidney dysfunction. Synthetic creatine supplements can cause kidney damage, metformin may rarely cause lactic acidosis leading to renal impairment, and high-dose NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury. Prenatal vitamins and albuterol nebulizers are not known to significantly impact kidney function, thus do not pose a risk for kidney problems.
4. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
- B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.
5. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:
- A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan
- B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor
- C. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.
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