Nursing Elites

1. An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
• B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
• C. Wear prescription glasses
• D. Eat a diet high in carotene

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.

2. A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client?

• A. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus every 24 hours
• B. Taping the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system
• C. Adding 20 mL of sterile water to the suction control chamber every shift
• D. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber every 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed chest drainage system is to tape the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system. This is done to prevent accidental disconnection, ensuring the system functions properly. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus should be done more frequently than once every 24 hours to monitor for any air leaks. Adding sterile water to the suction control chamber is not necessary every shift; it should be done as needed to maintain the appropriate water level. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber should be done more frequently than every 24 hours, with hourly monitoring during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter to assess for changes or complications.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?

• A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
• B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
• C. Peripheral neuropathy.
• D. Uremic fetor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.

4. A patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to treat a urinary tract infection complains of a sore throat. The nurse will contact the provider to request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. Complete blood count with differential
• B. Throat culture
• C. Urinalysis
• D. Coagulation studies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) for a urinary tract infection presents with a sore throat, the nurse should request a complete blood count with differential. TMP-SMX can cause life-threatening adverse effects such as agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a low white blood cell count, which can manifest as a sore throat. Ordering a complete blood count with differential helps assess the patient's white blood cell count to detect any potential serious adverse effects. Throat culture (Choice B) is not indicated unless there are specific signs of a throat infection. Urinalysis (Choice C) is not relevant for assessing a sore throat. Coagulation studies (Choice D) are not typically indicated for a sore throat symptom.

5. An adult female client has undergone a routine health screening in the clinic. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse who receives the report of the client’s laboratory work that the client’s hematocrit is normal?

• A. 10%
• B. 22%
• C. 30%
• D. 43%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The normal hematocrit for an adult female client ranges from 35% to 47%. A hematocrit value of 43% falls within this normal range, indicating normal levels of red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are low hematocrit values and are considered below the normal range for adult females, signifying potential anemia or other health issues.

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