in a patient with diabetes which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia
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Nursing Elites

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1. In a patient with diabetes, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in patients with diabetes. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, leading to symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, and palpitations. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) in diabetes. Dry skin is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin therapy. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypertension. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to an increase in blood pressure, making hypertension a common side effect that the nurse should closely monitor. Hypotension (choice A) is not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to erythropoietin therapy in clients with chronic renal failure, making them incorrect choices.

3. A client is returning home after arthroscopy of the shoulder. The nurse should tell the client:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After arthroscopy, it is important for the client to report any signs of infection, such as the development of fever or redness and heat at the site, to the physician promptly. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. The client should not resume full activity the next day as rest and limited movement are usually recommended post-arthroscopy. It is not necessary to withhold food or fluids until the next morning; the client may resume the usual diet immediately unless otherwise instructed. While immobilization may be recommended for a period, keeping the shoulder completely immobilized for the rest of the day is not typically necessary post-arthroscopy.

4. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.

5. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

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