Nursing Elites

1. A client with nephrotic syndrome is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Hypoalbuminemia
• C. Lipiduria
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by glomerular damage, leading to proteinuria (excessive protein in the urine), hypoalbuminemia (low levels of albumin in the blood), and lipiduria (lipids in the urine). These manifestations are key indicators of nephrotic syndrome. Edema, often severe, is also common due to decreased plasma oncotic pressure from hypoalbuminemia. The correct answer is 'All of the above' because all three manifestations are associated with nephrotic syndrome. Dehydration is not a typical finding in nephrotic syndrome as it is more commonly associated with fluid retention and edema. Dysuria is a symptom of cystitis, not nephrotic syndrome. CVA tenderness is more indicative of inflammatory changes in the kidney rather than nephrotic syndrome.

2. The nurse is preparing to begin a medication regimen for a patient who will receive intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. Which is an important nursing action?

• A. Administer each antibiotic to infuse over 15 to 20 minutes.
• B. Order serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin.
• C. Prepare the schedule so that the drugs are given at the same time.
• D. Set up separate tubing sets for each drug labeled with the drug name and date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering intravenous aminoglycosides like gentamicin with penicillins such as ampicillin, it is crucial to avoid mixing them in the same container. Separate tubing sets labeled with the drug name and date should be used to prevent interactions between the medications. Administering each antibiotic over 15 to 20 minutes (Choice A) may not be appropriate for all medications and does not address the issue of compatibility. Ordering serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin (Choice B) is important for monitoring drug levels but does not directly address the administration process. Preparing a schedule to give drugs simultaneously (Choice C) may increase the risk of drug interactions and is not recommended when administering incompatible medications.

3. A client who underwent lobectomy 24 hours ago has not had any chest tube drainage for the past hour. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Contacts the physician
• B. Checks for kinks in the drainage system
• C. Checks the client’s blood pressure and heart rate
• D. Connects a new drainage system to the client’s chest tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a chest tube is not draining, the nurse's initial action should be to check for kinks or clots in the chest drainage system. This step helps to ensure the patency of the system and allows for proper drainage. Checking the client's blood pressure and heart rate is important but not the priority when addressing a lack of chest tube drainage. Contacting the physician is warranted if signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift are observed after ruling out kinks or clots. Connecting a new drainage system is done when the fluid chamber is full, following a specific procedure to maintain a closed system and prevent complications.

4. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?

• A. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine.
• B. There is serous sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• C. The ileostomy stoma appears pale and cyanotic.
• D. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.

5. An adult female client has undergone a routine health screening in the clinic. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse who receives the report of the client’s laboratory work that the client’s hematocrit is normal?

• A. 10%
• B. 22%
• C. 30%
• D. 43%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The normal hematocrit for an adult female client ranges from 35% to 47%. A hematocrit value of 43% falls within this normal range, indicating normal levels of red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are low hematocrit values and are considered below the normal range for adult females, signifying potential anemia or other health issues.

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