Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Assess the client's core temperature.
• D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

2. A healthcare professional reviews the blood gas results of a client in respiratory distress. The pH is 7.32, and the PCO2 is 50 mm Hg. Which of the following acid-base imbalances does the professional recognize in these findings?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35) and the PCO2 is increased (>45 mm Hg). These findings indicate that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood due to inadequate ventilation, commonly seen in respiratory distress. Metabolic acidosis (Choice A) is characterized by a low pH and decreased bicarbonate levels, which is not the case in this scenario. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is associated with a high pH and increased bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis (Choice D) is marked by a high pH and decreased PCO2, opposite to the values presented in the blood gas results of this client.

3. Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?

• A. Assess the patency of the airway
• B. Check tubes and drains for patency
• C. Check the dressing for bleeding
• D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action for the nurse upon the arrival of a client to the surgical unit is to assess the patency of the airway. This step takes priority to ensure that the client has a clear airway for adequate breathing. Checking tubes and drains for patency, inspecting the dressing for bleeding, and assessing vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements are important subsequent steps in the assessment process. However, ensuring the airway is patent is the immediate priority to maintain the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of renal function testing in a client with renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the healthcare professional that the client’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is within the normal range?

• A. 2 mg/dL
• B. 18 mg/dL
• C. 25 mg/dL
• D. 35 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal BUN ranges from 5 to 20 mg/dL. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL falls within this normal range. Values of 25 and 35 mg/dL are elevated, suggesting potential renal insufficiency. Choice A (2 mg/dL) is abnormally low and not indicative of a normal BUN level.

5. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
• B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
• C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
• D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

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