NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:
- A. Trendelenburg position
- B. Ice to the entire extremity
- C. Buck's traction
- D. An abduction pillow
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.
2. To decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings, what should the nurse do?
- A. Tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial
- B. Positively reinforce each expression of feelings
- C. Instruct the client to express feelings
- D. Challenge the client each time denial is used
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach to decrease a client's use of denial and promote the expression of feelings is to positively reinforce each expression of feelings. This method helps the client feel supported and validated, encouraging them to continue expressing their emotions openly. Positively reinforcing the expression of feelings can help reduce the need for denial as the client learns that their emotions are acknowledged and accepted. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A of telling the client to stop using denial is too directive and may be ineffective. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) lacks positive reinforcement, and challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) can create a confrontational environment that hinders therapeutic progress.
3. James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:
- A. denial
- B. suppression
- C. displacement
- D. fantasy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'displacement.' Displacement is a defense mechanism where emotions or impulses are transferred from their original source to a substitute target. In this scenario, James is displacing his anger from his teacher onto the dog. Choice A, 'denial,' involves refusing to acknowledge an unpleasant reality. Choice B, 'suppression,' is the conscious effort to push unwanted thoughts out of awareness. Choice D, 'fantasy,' refers to imagining scenarios that fulfill one's desires but are not based in reality.
4. A two-year-old has been in the hospital for 3 weeks and has seldom seen family members due to isolation precautions. Which of the following hospitalization changes is most likely to be occurring?
- A. Guilt
- B. Trust
- C. Separation anxiety
- D. Shame
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation anxiety.' Separation anxiety is a common response in young children when they are separated from their primary caregivers for extended periods. In this case, the two-year-old being in the hospital for three weeks and not being able to see family members due to isolation precautions can trigger separation anxiety. 'Guilt' is a feeling of responsibility for wrongdoing, which is not the most likely change occurring in this scenario. 'Trust' involves reliance and confidence in others, not typically associated with prolonged separation from family. 'Shame' is a negative emotion related to feeling disgrace, which is not the most appropriate response in this hospitalization situation.
5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?
- A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
- B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
- C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
- D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.
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