Nursing Elites

1. A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in the nursing unit. Which note(s) in a client's record indicate an unexpected outcome and the need for follow-up?

• A. A client is performing their own colostomy irrigations.
• B. A client with a central venous catheter has a temperature of 100.6�F.
• C. A client who has just undergone surgery has a urine output of more than 30 mL/hr.
• D. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is self-administering insulin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A case manager is a healthcare professional responsible for coordinating a client's care from admission through and after discharge. They evaluate and update the plan of care as needed, monitoring for unexpected outcomes and providing follow-up. A temperature of 100.6�F in a client with a central venous catheter is an unexpected outcome that requires follow-up due to the potential indication of an infection. Choices A, C, and D describe expected outcomes and appropriate self-care management. The client self-irrigating their colostomy, a post-surgical client having adequate urine output, and a newly diagnosed diabetic self-administering insulin are all positive indicators of self-care and expected outcomes, not requiring immediate follow-up.

2. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

3. Which hormone in the urine is specifically indicative of pregnancy?

• A. estrogen
• B. progesterone
• C. testosterone
• D. human chorionic gonadotropin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Human chorionic gonadotropin is the hormone specifically indicative of pregnancy as it is produced by the placenta after implantation. It can be detected in urine and blood samples to confirm pregnancy. Estrogen and progesterone play crucial roles in the menstrual cycle and pregnancy but are not specific indicators of pregnancy on their own. Testosterone is a hormone primarily associated with male reproductive functions and is not directly related to pregnancy, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

4. Which of the following statements by a client indicates adequate preparation for magnetic resonance imaging?

• A. "I should wear earplugs during the test."?
• B. "I should remove my metal jewelry before the test."?
• C. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my pacemaker."?
• D. "I should inform the healthcare provider about my artificial hip."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is, '"I should wear earplugs during the test,"?' as MRI scanners produce loud noises requiring ear protection. Metal objects, including jewelry, are not allowed inside the MRI room due to safety concerns related to the magnetic field. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is wrong because metal objects, including jewelry, are not permitted in the MRI room. Choices C and D are incorrect as having a pacemaker or an artificial hip raises concerns due to the magnetic field in MRI, requiring special precautions or considerations. It is crucial for individuals with such implants to inform their healthcare provider to assess the risks and determine the appropriate course of action.

5. A client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Retape the NG tube.
• B. Clamp the NG tube.
• C. Remove the NG tube.
• D. Check the NG tube placement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube begins vomiting, the nurse should first check the NG tube placement. Vomiting can be a sign of tube displacement, which can lead to serious complications. Retaping the tube (Choice A), clamping it (Choice B), or removing it (Choice C) without first assessing its placement can be harmful or ineffective. Checking the NG tube placement is crucial as it ensures that the tube is in the correct position and prevents potential complications. Retaping the NG tube (Choice A) is incorrect because the priority is to check the placement first. Clamping the NG tube (Choice B) or removing it (Choice C) without verifying the placement can be dangerous if the tube is dislodged. Thus, these actions should not be taken before confirming the tube's position.

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