Nursing Elites

1. What information does the healthcare provider remember regarding do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders in this scenario?

• A. That a DNR order may be written by a healthcare provider
• B. That everything possible must be done if the client stops breathing
• C. That medications only may be given to the client if the client stops breathing
• D. That life support measures will have to be implemented if the client stops breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client has no family members and the client's wife is mentally incompetent, the healthcare provider may write a DNR order if it is deemed medically certain that resuscitation would be futile. A DNR order is a medical directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR if a patient's heart stops or if the patient stops breathing. Option A is correct because a DNR order can indeed be issued by a healthcare provider under certain circumstances, as it is a medical decision. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concept of DNR orders and the decision-making process involved in such situations.

2. The nurse on the 3-11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action?

• A. Call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information
• B. Explain the procedure and complications to the client
• C. Check the physician's progress notes to see if understanding has been documented
• D. Check with the client's family to see if they understand the procedure fully

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action in this scenario is to call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information. It is the responsibility of the physician to explain and clarify the procedure to the client, ensuring informed consent. Answer B is incorrect as nurses should not provide detailed medical explanations beyond their scope of practice. Answer C is incorrect as the physician's notes may not capture the client's current understanding accurately. Answer D is incorrect because the client's own understanding, not the family's, is crucial for informed decision-making regarding the surgery.

3. Which of the following ethnic groups is at highest risk in the United States for pesticide-related injuries?

• A. Native American
• B. Asian-Pacific
• C. Norwegian
• D. Hispanic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hispanic.' Hispanic individuals in the United States are at a higher risk for pesticide-related injuries due to their representation among migrant workers in agricultural settings. This exposure to pesticides in their work environments increases their risk compared to other ethnic groups. Choice A, 'Native American,' although indigenous populations may face environmental health disparities, the higher risk in this context is among Hispanic individuals. Choice B, 'Asian-Pacific,' and Choice C, 'Norwegian,' do not have the same level of exposure to pesticides as Hispanic migrant workers, making them less susceptible to pesticide-related injuries.

4. A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contacting the health care provider
• B. Checking if it is time for more pain medication
• C. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm
• D. Repositioning the client for comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.

5. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

• A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
• B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
• C. intractable diarrhea
• D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

Similar Questions