Nursing Elites

1. What information does the healthcare provider remember regarding do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders in this scenario?

• A. That a DNR order may be written by a healthcare provider
• B. That everything possible must be done if the client stops breathing
• C. That medications only may be given to the client if the client stops breathing
• D. That life support measures will have to be implemented if the client stops breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client has no family members and the client's wife is mentally incompetent, the healthcare provider may write a DNR order if it is deemed medically certain that resuscitation would be futile. A DNR order is a medical directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR if a patient's heart stops or if the patient stops breathing. Option A is correct because a DNR order can indeed be issued by a healthcare provider under certain circumstances, as it is a medical decision. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concept of DNR orders and the decision-making process involved in such situations.

2. Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are:

• A. the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client.
• B. those tasks that can be delegated to assistive personnel.
• C. those tasks that can be performed at the end of the shift.
• D. those tasks that can be performed at any time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Priorities designated as intermediate by the nurse are those that are not urgent but still important, such as the nonemergency, non-life-threatening needs of the client. They do not impact the client's immediate physiological status but require attention. Intermediate priorities may need the skill level of an RN for completion and may have specific time requirements. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the priority being intermediate doesn't mean it can be delegated, done at a specific time, or done at any time; it simply indicates a non-urgent but necessary task for the client's well-being.

3. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

• A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
• B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
• C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
• D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

4. Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for:

• A. tuberculosis.
• B. herpes.
• C. hepatitis.
• D. syphilis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a recent tattoo, someone should be screened for hepatitis. Tattooing puts a client at risk for blood-borne hepatitis B or C if strict sterile procedures are not followed. Tuberculosis is an airborne pathogen, while herpes and syphilis are spread through direct contact like sexual activity. Therefore, hepatitis is the most relevant infection to screen for after getting a tattoo.

5. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

• A. Respiratory Isolation
• B. Standard Precautions
• C. Contact Isolation
• D. Droplet Isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

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