Nursing Elites

1. What information does the healthcare provider remember regarding do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders in this scenario?

• A. That a DNR order may be written by a healthcare provider
• B. That everything possible must be done if the client stops breathing
• C. That medications only may be given to the client if the client stops breathing
• D. That life support measures will have to be implemented if the client stops breathing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client has no family members and the client's wife is mentally incompetent, the healthcare provider may write a DNR order if it is deemed medically certain that resuscitation would be futile. A DNR order is a medical directive that instructs healthcare providers not to perform CPR if a patient's heart stops or if the patient stops breathing. Option A is correct because a DNR order can indeed be issued by a healthcare provider under certain circumstances, as it is a medical decision. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concept of DNR orders and the decision-making process involved in such situations.

2. The nurse on the 3-11 shift is assessing the chart of a client with an abdominal aneurysm scheduled for surgery in the morning and finds that the consent form has been signed, but the client is unclear about the surgery and possible complications. Which is the most appropriate action?

• A. Call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information
• B. Explain the procedure and complications to the client
• C. Check the physician's progress notes to see if understanding has been documented
• D. Check with the client's family to see if they understand the procedure fully

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate action in this scenario is to call the surgeon and ask them to see the client to clarify the information. It is the responsibility of the physician to explain and clarify the procedure to the client, ensuring informed consent. Answer B is incorrect as nurses should not provide detailed medical explanations beyond their scope of practice. Answer C is incorrect as the physician's notes may not capture the client's current understanding accurately. Answer D is incorrect because the client's own understanding, not the family's, is crucial for informed decision-making regarding the surgery.

3. A safety measure to implement when transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair is:

• A. standing the client and walking him or her to the wheelchair.
• B. moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair.
• C. moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and standing and pivoting the client on his affected extremity to the wheelchair.
• D. having the client stand and push his body to the wheelchair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, it is crucial to ensure their safety. The correct safety measure involves moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and having the client stand and pivot on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair. This method provides support with the unaffected limb, reducing the risk of falls and promoting a safer transfer. Choice A is incorrect because walking the client is unsafe and not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as pivoting the client on his affected extremity can lead to injury or falls due to weakness or lack of control. Choice D is incorrect as it puts the client at risk by requiring them to push their body, which may not be feasible or safe for someone with hemiparesis.

4. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

5. An LPN is talking with a client scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?"? What is the LPN's best response?

• A. "Yes, vasectomies can be reversed, but once you have it, you may regret it later."?
• B. "It's normal to feel a little nervous before a procedure like this."?
• C. "It sounds like you have a few more questions you'd like answered. Let me grab the doctor quickly so he can answer them for you."?
• D. "It sounds like you might be a little nervous. Don't worry, this is a pretty minor procedure, and the doctor doing it is the best we have. You're in great hands."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the LPN is to acknowledge the client's concerns and offer to provide more information. By offering to get the doctor to answer any additional questions, the LPN shows respect for the client's right to informed consent. Option A provides some information but dismisses the client's uncertainty and implies they won't regret the decision, which may not be the case. Option B acknowledges nervousness but doesn't directly address the client's request for more information. Option D attempts to reassure the client but fails to address the need for additional questions to be answered by the doctor.

Similar Questions