Nursing Elites

1. Why is padding on a restraint helpful?

• A. To distribute pressure so that bony prominences do not receive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints.
• B. To help the client feel more secure.
• C. To keep infection and wounds at bay.
• D. To keep restraints in place.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Padding on a restraint helps distribute pressure to prevent bony prominences from bearing excessive pressure when a client pulls against the restraints. This is crucial to avoid tissue damage caused by ischemia. The correct answer focuses on the physiological benefit of padding in reducing pressure on vulnerable areas to prevent harm. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose of padding is not emotional comfort but preventing physical harm. Choice C is incorrect as while padding can indirectly help prevent infection and wounds by reducing pressure, its primary function is pressure distribution. Choice D is incorrect as the main purpose of padding is not to keep the restraints in place but to protect the client's skin and tissues from pressure-related injuries.

2. A nurse monitoring a client with a chest tube notes that there is no tidaling of fluid in the water seal chamber. After further assessment, the nurse suspects that the client's lung has reexpanded and notifies the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider verifies with the use of a chest x-ray that the lung has reexpanded, then calls the nurse to ask that the chest tube be removed. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Explain the procedure to the client, then remove the chest tube.
• B. Call the nursing supervisor.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure.
• D. Obtain petrolatum-impregnated gauze and ask another nurse to assist in removing the chest tube.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the healthcare provider that removal of a chest tube is not a nursing procedure. Actual removal of a chest tube is the duty of a healthcare provider. If the healthcare provider insists that the nurse remove the tube, the nurse must contact the nursing supervisor. Some agencies' policies and procedures may permit an advanced practice nurse to remove a chest tube, but there is no information in the question to indicate that the nurse is an advanced practice nurse. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not proceed with removing the chest tube without proper authorization. Choice B is incorrect as calling the nursing supervisor should come after clarifying with the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not begin the process of removing the chest tube without proper guidance and authorization.

3. While on the wound care team, the nurse notices that a fellow nurse opens extra colloid dressings that are often thrown away when they are not needed. What should the nurse do?

• A. Do nothing, as it is not impacting client care.
• B. Discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies.
• C. Tell the charge nurse to stop ordering these dressings.
• D. Remove the colloid dressings from the shelf so that the nurse will find other supplies to use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss with the colleague the concern about wasting supplies. By addressing this issue, the nurse can promote cost-effective care within the unit. While it may not directly impact client care, the wastage of supplies affects the unit's supply cost, making choice A incorrect. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the charge nurse is solely responsible for the ordering process and overlooks the opportunity for direct communication between colleagues. Choice D is incorrect as it involves taking matters into one's own hands rather than addressing the issue through communication and collaboration.

4. A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for all of the following except:

• A. identifying risks.
• B. controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims.
• C. ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions.
• D. analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A risk management program within a hospital is responsible for identifying risks, controlling financial loss due to malpractice claims, and analyzing risks and trends to guide further interventions or programs. It is not responsible for ensuring that staff follow their job descriptions. Monitoring staff adherence to their job descriptions falls under the purview of departmental managers or supervisors. The primary focus of a risk management program is to assess, mitigate, and manage risks related to patient safety, quality of care, and financial implications, rather than overseeing staff job descriptions.

5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

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