Nursing Elites

1. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?

• A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
• B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
• C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
• D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.

2. A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?

• A. One-quarter
• B. One-third
• C. One-half
• D. Two-thirds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.

3. If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

• A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
• B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
• C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
• D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

4. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

5. A nurse is preparing to measure a client's calf circumference. The nurse performs this procedure by performing which action?

• A. Placing a tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg
• B. Measuring 2 inches above the knee and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
• C. Measuring 2 inches above the ankle and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point
• D. Measuring 2 inches below the patella and placing the tape measure around the client's leg at this point

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To measure a client's calf circumference accurately, a nurse should place a non-stretchable tape measure around the widest point of the lower leg. It is crucial to ensure that the tape measure is positioned at the same number of centimeters down from a specific landmark, such as the patella, on both legs for consistency. Placing the tape measure 2 inches above the knee (Option B), 2 inches above the ankle (Option C), or 2 inches below the patella (Option D) would not provide an accurate measurement of the calf circumference. Therefore, these options are incorrect choices.

Similar Questions