NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?
- A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
- B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
- C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
- D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.
2. The nurse is caring for a preschool child who is being treated in the hospital for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). In planning the client's care, the nurse should recognize that the child is likely to view this illness as?
- A. Punishment.
- B. Disturbance to body image.
- C. Rejection from parents.
- D. Change in routine with friends.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Punishment. Preschool children often see illness as a form of punishment, especially when they are unable to understand the cause of their sickness. This perception is rooted in their limited cognitive abilities and understanding of health concepts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because preschool children are less likely to associate illness with disturbance to body image, rejection from parents, or changes in routine with friends. These options are not developmentally appropriate for how preschoolers typically interpret illness.
3. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
- A. anemia
- B. edema
- C. painless vaginal bleeding
- D. fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.
4. Which of the following is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms of Type II Diabetes treatment?
- A. Medications
- B. Nutrition
- C. Increased activity
- D. Continuous Insulin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Continuous Insulin is not typically considered one of the main mechanisms for treating Type II Diabetes. While medications, nutrition, and increased activity play crucial roles in managing Type II Diabetes, continuous insulin therapy is more common in Type I Diabetes or in specific cases of Type II Diabetes where other treatments are ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is Continuous Insulin. Choices A, B, and C are mainstays in the treatment of Type II Diabetes, making them incorrect answers.
5. Nursing care for a client undergoing chemotherapy includes assessment for signs of bone marrow depression. Which finding accounts for some of the symptoms related to bone marrow depression?
- A. erythrocytosis
- B. leukocytosis
- C. polycythemia
- D. thrombocytopenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia is an abnormal decrease in the number of platelets, which results in bleeding tendencies. During chemotherapy, bone marrow depression can lead to a reduction in platelet production, causing thrombocytopenia. Erythrocytosis is an abnormal increase in red blood cells, leukocytosis is an increase in white blood cells, and polycythemia is an excess of red blood cells, which is synonymous with erythrocytosis. In the context of chemotherapy, the focus is on the decrease in red and white blood cells, making thrombocytopenia the most relevant finding.
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