Nursing Elites

1. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?

• A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
• B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
• C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
• D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.

2. A nurse is assessing an 18-year-old female who has recently suffered a TBI. The nurse notes a slower pulse and impaired respiration. The nurse should report these findings immediately to the physician due to the possibility the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?

• A. Increased intracranial pressure
• B. Increased function of cranial nerve X
• C. Sympathetic response to activity
• D. Meningitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should report the slower pulse and impaired respiration to the physician immediately as they are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) following a traumatic brain injury (TBI). These signs suggest that there may be a rise in pressure within the skull, which can be a life-threatening condition requiring urgent intervention. Options B and C are unlikely in this scenario as they do not correlate with the symptoms presented. Meningitis (Option D) typically presents with different signs and symptoms, such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, which are not described in the patient's case.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease arrives in the emergency department complaining of weakness and states that he vomited 'a lot of dark coffee-looking stomach contents.' The client is cool and moist to the touch. BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20, T 98. Of the following physician orders, which will the nurse perform first?

• A. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula.
• B. Start an IV of NS at 150 ml/hr
• C. Insert NG tube to low suction
• D. Attach the client to the ECG monitor

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate oxygen at 2 liters/nasal cannula. The client is presenting signs of shock with hypotension, tachycardia, and cool, moist skin, which indicate poor tissue perfusion. Oxygen should be administered first to improve tissue oxygenation. While all interventions are important, oxygenation takes priority in the ABCs of emergency care. Starting an IV of NS, inserting an NG tube, and attaching the client to the ECG monitor are necessary interventions but should follow the priority of oxygen administration in this scenario.

4. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?

• A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.

5. On morning rounds, the nurse finds a somnolent client with a Blood glucose of 89 mg/dL. A sulfonurea and a proton pump inhibitor are scheduled to be administered. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats
• B. Hold medications and notify the physician
• C. Arouse the client and give some orange juice with sugar packets added
• D. Give the medications as ordered and re-check blood sugar in one hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to give the proton pump inhibitor and hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Sulfonureas should be held for blood glucose levels below 100 mg/dL until the client has food to prevent hypoglycemia. Giving the proton pump inhibitor is appropriate and does not need to be delayed. Option B is incorrect because holding both medications without taking appropriate action may lead to further complications. Option C is not the best choice as it does not address the need to hold the sulfonurea until the client eats. Option D is incorrect because administering the medications without ensuring the client eats may lead to hypoglycemia.

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