NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Exam Cram
1. A 27-year-old woman has delivered twins in the OB unit. The patient develops a condition of 5-centimeter diastasis recti abdominis. Which of the following statements is the most accurate when instructing the patient?
- A. Avoid sit-ups to prevent worsening the condition.
- B. Surgery is not always necessary for this condition.
- C. Guarding the abdominal region is important at this time.
- D. Antibiotics are not needed for diastasis recti abdominis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After experiencing diastasis recti abdominis, it is crucial for the patient to protect and guard the abdominal region to facilitate healing. Choice A is correct since avoiding sit-ups is important to prevent worsening the condition by increasing intra-abdominal pressure. Choice B is accurate as not all cases of diastasis recti abdominis require surgery; conservative management is often effective. Choice D is also correct as antibiotics are not indicated for diastasis recti abdominis since it is a separation of the abdominal muscles and not an infectious condition.
2. Which of the following injuries, presented by a client entering the Emergency Department, is the highest priority?
- A. open leg fracture
- B. open head injury
- C. stab wound to the chest
- D. traumatic amputation of a thumb
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stab wound to the chest is the highest priority injury. This type of injury can lead to lung collapse and mediastinal shift, potentially resulting in death if left untreated. Treating an obstructed airway or a chest wound takes precedence over addressing hemorrhage. The principle of ABC (airway, breathing, and circulation) guides care decisions in prioritizing life-threatening situations. An open leg fracture, open head injury, and traumatic amputation of a thumb, while serious, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to a stab wound to the chest. An open leg fracture may lead to significant blood loss but is not immediately life-threatening. An open head injury requires assessment and intervention but does not impact airway, breathing, or circulation directly. Traumatic amputation of a thumb is a serious injury but can be managed after addressing more life-threatening conditions.
3. The nurse overhears two nursing students talking about a client in the cafeteria. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Report the incident to the nursing supervisor.
- B. Write up a variance report about the incident.
- C. Instruct the students that this is a violation of HIPAA.
- D. Notify the students' faculty regarding the violation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the students that discussing a client in a public area like the cafeteria violates HIPAA regulations. This is important to educate the students about patient confidentiality and the consequences of breaching it. Reporting to the nursing supervisor or faculty should come after addressing the students directly. Writing up a variance report is not the immediate action needed in this situation, as educating the students about their mistake should be the priority. It is essential to address the issue at the source by educating the students first rather than escalating the matter to supervisors or faculty immediately.
4. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
- B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
- C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
- D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.
5. Which sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID?
- A. Genital herpes.
- B. Trichomoniasis.
- C. Syphilis.
- D. Chlamydia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Chlamydia. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often be asymptomatic, earning it the nickname 'silent STD.' It is more common than gonorrhea and is a leading cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Genital herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection, not a bacterial STD like chlamydia. Trichomoniasis (Choice B) is a parasitic infection and not commonly associated with causing PID. Syphilis (Choice C) is a bacterial infection but is not as common as chlamydia and is not a leading cause of PID.
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