Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

2. A nurse who recently learned she is pregnant has just received client assignments for the day. Which client assignment should the nurse question as being inappropriate?

• A. A client with metastatic cancer who is receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate
• B. A client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant
• C. A client with diarrhea for whom enteric precautions are in effect
• D. A client for whom contact precautions have been implemented and who requires frequent wound irrigations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a client with a solid-sealed cervical radiation implant. Brachytherapy involves the implantation of a sealed radiation source within the targeted tumor tissue. A client with such an implant emits radiation as long as it is in place. Pregnant nurses should not care for clients with solid-sealed radiation implants due to the potential radiation exposure risk to the fetus. Clients under enteric precautions due to diarrhea, receiving a continuous infusion of intravenous morphine sulfate for cancer pain, or requiring contact precautions and frequent wound irrigations do not pose a risk to pregnant nurses and are appropriate assignments for them. Therefore, the nurse should question the assignment involving the client with the solid-sealed cervical radiation implant as it poses a risk to the fetus.

3. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?

• A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
• B. There is no known cure for the disease.
• C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
• D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.

4. What should be the first action upon the discovery of an electrical fire?

• A. Disconnect the electrical power if it can be done safely
• B. Smother the source with an object like a blanket
• C. Saturate the source with water or another liquid
• D. Immediately activate the fire alarm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action upon discovering an electrical fire is to disconnect the electrical power if it can be done safely. This helps prevent the fire from spreading through the electrical system. Smothering the fire with a blanket is not recommended for electrical fires as it can fuel the fire. Saturating the source with water or other liquids is also not advised as it can lead to electric shock or spread the fire. Activating the fire alarm is important, but it should be done after disconnecting the power to prevent further escalation of the fire.

5. A client is having a seizure; his blood oxygen saturation drops from 92% to 82%. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Open the airway.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Suction the client.
• D. Check for breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is having a seizure and their blood oxygen saturation drops significantly, the priority action for the nurse is to open the airway. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation. Administering oxygen can come after ensuring the airway is clear. Suctioning the client should be done if there is an airway obstruction, and checking for breathing is part of the assessment but opening the airway takes precedence to ensure proper oxygenation and ventilation during a critical event like a seizure.

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