Nursing Elites

1. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

2. A new nurse employed at a community hospital is reading the organization's mission statement. The new nurse understands that this statement is written for which purpose?

• A. To outline what the organization plans to accomplish
• B. To identify the policies and procedures of the organization
• C. To describe the benefits available to employees
• D. To define the rules of the organization that the employees must follow

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To outline what the organization plans to accomplish.' A mission statement expresses the purpose or reason for an organization's existence, outlining what it aims to achieve. It often includes statements of philosophy, purpose, and goals. This statement serves as a benchmark for evaluating the organization's performance. The mission statement is not meant to identify policies and procedures (Choice B) or describe employee benefits (Choice C). Choice B specifies the administrative guidelines and protocols of the organization, while Choice C pertains to the perks available to employees. Choice D is incorrect as the rules of the organization that employees must follow are usually detailed in employee handbooks or codes of conduct, not in the mission statement.

3. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?

• A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
• B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
• D. two protease inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.

4. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

• A. Dysreflexia
• B. Risk for Injury
• C. Urinary Retention
• D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for Injury.' Epileptic clients are at risk for injury due to complications of seizure activity, such as falls that could lead to head trauma. 'Dysreflexia' is not typically associated with epilepsy but rather with spinal cord injury. 'Urinary Retention' is not a common nursing diagnosis for epileptic clients unless specifically indicated. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' may not be a priority nursing diagnosis compared to the immediate risk of injury in epileptic clients.

5. A client with major head trauma is receiving bolus enteral feeding. The most important nursing order for this client is:

• A. measure intake and output.
• B. check albumin levels.
• C. monitor glucose levels.
• D. increase enteral feeding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with major head trauma receiving bolus enteral feeding is to measure intake and output (I&O). Enteral feedings are hyperosmotic agents that can cause fluid shifts. Monitoring I&O is crucial to assess fluid balance, ensuring that input matches output. Checking albumin levels (choice B) is important for assessing nutritional status but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Monitoring glucose levels (choice C) is also important but not as critical as measuring I&O in this context. Increasing enteral feeding (choice D) should only be done based on a healthcare provider's order after assessing the patient's condition, not as the most important nursing order at this time.

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