Nursing Elites

1. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

2. After administering medication through an NG tube, the client asks if he can lie down when the nurse leaves the room. What is the most appropriate response?

• A. You can lie down in 1 hour.
• B. You can lie down in 5 minutes if your NG residual is below 50 mLs.
• C. You can lie down in about 30 minutes.
• D. Yes, feel free to lie down.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that they can lie down in about 30 minutes. After administering medication through an NG tube, it is recommended that the client remains upright for about 30 minutes to ensure proper absorption of the medications. Option A is incorrect as waiting for 1 hour is unnecessary. Option B is incorrect as the specified timeframe and condition given are not standard practice for lying down after NG tube medication administration. Option D is incorrect as it lacks guidance on the appropriate waiting time and does not emphasize the importance of waiting before lying down for optimal medication absorption.

3. Delegation of tasks to appropriate personnel allows the nurse to:

• A. ensure tasks are appropriately distributed.
• B. keep other members of the team productive.
• C. maintain tight control of all aspects of the workflow.
• D. recognize the importance of team members' roles.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Delegating tasks to appropriate personnel is essential for a nurse to keep other team members productive. By assigning tasks that align with the specific roles and responsibilities of team members, the nurse can enhance work effectiveness and efficiency. Option A is incorrect because delegation is not primarily about ensuring tasks are evenly distributed but rather about utilizing team members' skills effectively. Option C is incorrect as maintaining tight control of all aspects of the workflow can hinder teamwork and limit individual growth. Option D is incorrect because effective delegation involves empowering team members to make decisions within their scope of practice, rather than solely recognizing the importance of their roles.

4. Which of the following statements describes the purpose of client restraint?

• A. Restraints are a nursing measure used to maintain client control.
• B. Restraints are an emergency intervention taken as a last resort to protect a client from imminent danger.
• C. Restraints are a therapeutic measure designed to positively reinforce client behavior.
• D. Restraints are an emergency measure that can only be taken by a nurse under the direct supervision of a physician.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Restraints are used as an emergency intervention when all other options to protect a client from imminent danger have been exhausted. Restraints should only be used as a last resort to ensure the safety of the client and others. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because restraints are not used to maintain control, reinforce behavior, or are exclusively taken under direct physician supervision. It is crucial to remember that restraint use should always be based on careful assessment, documentation, and adherence to legal and ethical guidelines.

5. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?

• A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
• B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
• C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
• D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.

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