a client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

2. Which action exemplifies the use of evidence-based practice in the delivery of client care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evidence-based practice is an approach to client care where the nurse integrates the client’s preferences, clinical expertise, and the best research evidence to deliver quality care. Donning sterile gloves to change an abdominal wound dressing exemplifies evidence-based practice as it prevents the entrance of harmful bacteria into the wound, following best practice guidelines. The other options do not align with evidence-based practice. Advising a client to agree to a treatment does not involve integrating research evidence. Taking herbal substances may not be supported by strong research evidence and can pose risks. Additionally, rectal temperature-taking in a client with bleeding precautions can increase the risk of injury to the rectal mucosa, not aligning with best practices in care delivery.

3. Once the nurse has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client should be cared for first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority should be given to the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m. Preparing a client for surgery involves various tasks such as physical and emotional preparation, following healthcare provider instructions, and potential last-minute changes in the surgical schedule. It is crucial to ensure the client is adequately prepared. Providing care to a client who just received pain medication can wait until the medication takes effect. Clients who are independent in performing daily activities and those scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not as high a priority as preparing a client for an upcoming surgery. Therefore, the client scheduled for surgery should be cared for first to ensure all necessary preparations are completed.

4. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

5. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

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