Nursing Elites

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

2. How far should the enema tube be inserted for a client to have a flatus-reducing enema?

• A. 4 inches.
• B. 6 inches.
• C. 2 inches.
• D. 8 inches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to insert the enema tube 4 inches. Enema tubing must be passed beyond the internal sphincter, which is typically around 4 inches in an adult. Inserting the tube only 2 inches is not far enough to reach this point. On the other hand, inserting the tube 6 or 8 inches is too far and might cause trauma to the bowel, which is unnecessary for a flatus-reducing enema. Therefore, the correct insertion depth of the enema tube is crucial to ensure effectiveness and safety in providing the intended treatment.

3. What is the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow?

• A. Nothing by mouth
• B. Nasogastric feedings
• C. Clear liquids
• D. Total parenteral nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric feedings are the most appropriate feeding method for a client who is unable to swallow. Providing nothing by mouth can lead to nutritional deficiencies, while clear liquids might cause aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is not necessary if the gastrointestinal tract is functional. Nasogastric feedings are preferred as they can safely provide nutrition without the risks associated with not eating or aspirating.

4. A client with leukemia is being considered for a bone marrow transplant. The healthcare team is discussing the risks and benefits of this treatment and other possible treatments with the goal of inflicting the least possible harm on the client. Which principle of healthcare ethics is the team practicing?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Autonomy
• D. Justice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nonmaleficence. Nonmaleficence is the principle of avoiding harm. In healthcare ethics, practitioners aim not only to do good but also to ensure they do no harm. In this scenario, the healthcare team is discussing treatment options with the intention of inflicting the least harm on the client. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to keeping promises made to clients, families, and healthcare professionals. Choice C, Autonomy, pertains to respecting a person's independence and right to make decisions. Choice D, Justice, involves fairness, equity, and the fair allocation of resources, such as healthcare services.

5. To what does legal protection of confidentiality extend?

• A. Written documentation only.
• B. Electronic dissemination of information not identifiable to a specific client.
• C. Only within the court system.
• D. Both written and verbal information.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Legal protection of confidentiality extends to both written and verbal information that is identifiable as individual private health information. Confidentiality in healthcare settings is vital to protect patients' privacy and trust. Choice A is incorrect because legal protection covers verbal information as well, not just written documentation. Choice B is incorrect as it mentions information not identifiable to a specific client, which wouldn't fall under legal protection of confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as confidentiality extends beyond just the court system, impacting various healthcare settings and interactions. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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