Nursing Elites

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

2. A client being treated for sickle cell disease has an order for pain medication. Morphine was ordered, but the nurse is having difficulty deciphering the dose. The nurse should ____.

• A. ask the attending physician to clarify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• B. call the charge nurse to inform the attending physician and verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• C. call the attending physician to verbally verify the order, including the correct medication, dose, route, and frequency
• D. refrain from administering the medication until the charge nurse can assist in determining the correct dosage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, when a nurse encounters difficulties in deciphering an order, the appropriate action is to contact the attending physician directly to clarify and verify the medication, dose, route, and frequency. It is crucial for the nurse to have a clear understanding of the order before administering any medication to ensure patient safety and proper treatment. Option A is incorrect as it suggests asking the attending physician to clarify without specifying the urgency of the situation. Option B involves an unnecessary additional step by first contacting the charge nurse before reaching out to the attending physician, potentially delaying the clarification process. Option D is incorrect as it advises refraining from administering the medication, which may not be necessary if the correct dosage can be promptly verified by contacting the attending physician.

3. When preparing a client for a neck x-ray, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take if the client expresses concern about removing a religious medal worn around the neck?

• A. Telling the client that the medal and chain will be kept at the nurse's station for safekeeping while the client is undergoing the x-ray
• B. Asking the client to remove the medal until the x-ray has been completed
• C. Assisting the client in pinning the medal and chain to the waistband of the client's pajama bottoms
• D. Asking the client to place the medal in the top drawer of the bedside stand just before leaving for the radiology department

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client undergoing a neck x-ray expresses concern about removing a religious medal worn around the neck, the nurse should assist the client in pinning the medal and chain to the hospital gown or in another area where it will not appear on the x-ray image. This action allows the client to keep the medal close without interfering with the x-ray procedure. It is important to ensure that the radiology department staff is informed about this arrangement. Asking the client to remove the medal, keeping it at the nurse's station, or placing it in the bedside stand is not appropriate. These actions may lead to the loss of the medal and chain and do not address the client's concerns about the religious significance of the item.

4. All of the following clients are in need of an emergency assessment except:

• A. a bleeding client who has an injury from falling debris.
• B. an unresponsive client.
• C. a client with an old injury.
• D. a pregnant woman with imminent delivery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client with an old injury.' Emergency assessments are required for immediate and life-threatening situations. Clients A, B, and D are in need of emergency assessments due to their critical conditions. Choice C, a client with an old injury, does not require an emergency assessment as it is not an acute or life-threatening situation. While the client with an old injury may still need medical attention, it does not necessitate an emergency assessment as the condition is not currently life-threatening or in need of immediate intervention.

5. A client is on a clear liquid diet. She drinks half of a 12-ounce juice, 4 ounces of soup, and has a 6-ounce JELLO�. How many milliliters of fluid did the patient ingest?

• A. 440 ml
• B. 480 ml
• C. 220 ml
• D. 660 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the total amount of fluid ingested, convert the ounces to milliliters. Given that 1 ounce is equal to 30 ml, the breakdown is as follows: Juice (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Soup (4 ounces): 4 x 30 = 120 ml. JELLO� (6 ounces): 6 x 30 = 180 ml. Adding these together: 180 ml (juice) + 120 ml (soup) + 180 ml (JELLO�) = 480 ml. Therefore, the patient ingested a total of 480 ml of fluid. It's important to note that gelatin, ice cream, and similar items that are liquid at room temperature should be considered as fluids. Choice A, 440 ml, is incorrect as it does not account for the correct calculation. Choice C, 220 ml, is incorrect as it is significantly lower than the correct total. Choice D, 660 ml, is incorrect as it overestimates the total fluid intake.

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