Nursing Elites

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

2. When a client's postoperative pain seems to be getting worse due to grief over the recent death of their spouse, what should the nurse consider?

• A. calling the physician for an increased dosage of pain medication
• B. calling the physician for a sedative
• C. referring the client for a psychiatric consult
• D. developing interventions for grief and loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is developing interventions for grief and loss. In this scenario, the client's pain is not solely sensory but also affective due to grieving over the death of their spouse. It is essential to address the emotional component of pain by providing support and interventions for grief and loss. Referring the client for a psychiatric consult may not be necessary as grieving is a normal response to such a significant loss. Calling the physician for an increased dosage of pain medication or a sedative solely focuses on the sensory aspect of pain and does not address the underlying emotional distress.

3. Which NSAID is comparable to morphine in efficacy?

• A. Feldene
• B. Stodal
• C. Toradol
• D. Elavil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Toradol. Toradol is the first injectable NSAID that has been found to be comparable to morphine in terms of efficacy. Feldene (choice A) is not known for being comparable to morphine in efficacy. Stodal (choice B) is a homeopathic cough syrup and not an NSAID. Elavil (choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant and not an NSAID, so it is not comparable to morphine in efficacy. Therefore, Toradol is the most appropriate choice as it matches the description provided in the question.

4. While observing a client using crutches for a leg injury, which action would indicate a need for more education by the LPN?

• A. The client places the top padding 1-2 inches below the axilla with a firm grip on the handles.
• B. The client rests the axilla on the top padding and loosely grips the handles with hands.
• C. The client has a slight bend in the elbow when using the handles.
• D. When going down the stairs, the client leads with the injured leg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Resting the axilla on the top padding can cause nerve damage; instead, the client should place the top padding 1-2 inches below the axilla with a firm grip on the handles for proper support and stability while using crutches. Having a slight bend in the elbow when using the handles (choice C) is a correct technique to ensure proper weight distribution. Leading with the uninjured leg when going down the stairs (choice D) is the correct way to maintain balance and prevent further injury to the injured leg. Therefore, choice B indicates a need for more education to prevent potential nerve damage and ensure safe crutch use.

5. While assisting a healthcare provider in assessing a hospitalized client, the healthcare provider is paged to report to the recovery room. The healthcare provider instructs the nurse verbally to change the solution and rate of the intravenous (IV) fluid being administered. What is the most appropriate nursing action in this situation?

• A. Calling the nursing supervisor to obtain permission to accept the verbal prescription
• B. Asking the healthcare provider to write the prescription in the client's record before leaving the nursing unit
• C. Telling the healthcare provider that the prescription will not be implemented until it is documented in the client's record
• D. Changing the solution and rate of the IV fluid per the healthcare provider's verbal prescription

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verbal prescriptions should be avoided due to the risk of errors. If a verbal prescription is necessary, it should be promptly written and signed by the healthcare provider, typically within 24 hours. Following agency policies and procedures regarding verbal prescriptions is crucial. In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to request the healthcare provider to document the prescription in the client's record before leaving the unit. Calling the nursing supervisor to accept the verbal prescription without documentation, telling the healthcare provider to delay treatment until documented, and directly changing the IV fluid based on verbal orders all pose risks and do not align with best practices in medication administration.

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