Nursing Elites

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

2. What is a significant point about Shigella that the nurse should acknowledge upon identifying it in a stool culture?

• A. People who have been in contact with the client need to be tested.
• B. Shigella is an airborne infection.
• C. Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water.
• D. The nurse should wear a one-way breathing apparatus when giving client care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shigella is a bacteria sometimes found in stagnant water. Transmission of Shigella is typically oral-fecal, so good hand washing and the use of gloves are the best means of prevention when caring for a client with Shigella. The bacteria can be found in food and water contaminated by fecal material. Incidences of Shigella are reportable in many states. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While it is important for close contacts to be aware and practice good hygiene, testing is not routinely indicated. Shigella is not an airborne infection; it is transmitted through contaminated food or water. A one-way breathing apparatus is not necessary for caring for a patient with Shigella; standard precautions, including handwashing and gloves, are sufficient.

3. In a disaster situation, the nurse assessing a diabetic client on insulin assesses for all of the following except:

• A. diabetic signs and symptoms.
• B. nutritional status.
• C. bleeding problems.
• D. availability of insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a disaster situation, when assessing a diabetic client on insulin, the nurse needs to consider various factors. Diabetic signs and symptoms, nutritional status, and availability of insulin are crucial aspects to assess for appropriate management during a crisis. However, bleeding problems are not directly related to diabetes or insulin therapy. Therefore, assessing for bleeding problems is not a priority in this context. Choice C, bleeding problems, is the correct answer as it is not typically associated with diabetes, unlike the other options provided.

4. A nurse enters a client's room to administer a medication that has been prescribed by the health care provider. The client asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. 'I know that it's for fluid buildup, and I think you've taken it before.''
• B. 'It's called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we'll need to increase the potassium in your diet.''
• C. 'It's to help get rid of the swelling in your feet.''
• D. ''You need to discuss this medication with your health care provider.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Choice B is the correct answer as it includes the medication name, its purpose (promoting urination and eliminating excess fluid), and a potential side effect (alteration in electrolyte levels) with a plan for managing it (increasing potassium in the diet). This response demonstrates thorough and complete information. Choice A provides some information but lacks details on potential side effects and dietary adjustments. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific details about the medication. Choice D deflects the client's question and does not fulfill the client's right to information.

5. An LPN is talking with a client scheduled to undergo a vasectomy in the next few minutes. He states, "I know I signed the form and all, but I'm not feeling so sure of this. It can be reversed pretty easily, right?"? What is the LPN's best response?

• A. "Yes, vasectomies can be reversed, but once you have it, you may regret it later."?
• B. "It's normal to feel a little nervous before a procedure like this."?
• C. "It sounds like you have a few more questions you'd like answered. Let me grab the doctor quickly so he can answer them for you."?
• D. "It sounds like you might be a little nervous. Don't worry, this is a pretty minor procedure, and the doctor doing it is the best we have. You're in great hands."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the LPN is to acknowledge the client's concerns and offer to provide more information. By offering to get the doctor to answer any additional questions, the LPN shows respect for the client's right to informed consent. Option A provides some information but dismisses the client's uncertainty and implies they won't regret the decision, which may not be the case. Option B acknowledges nervousness but doesn't directly address the client's request for more information. Option D attempts to reassure the client but fails to address the need for additional questions to be answered by the doctor.

Similar Questions