Nursing Elites

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

• A. renal failure
• B. psoriasis
• C. lupus
• D. cirrhosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

2. What instruction should a client who is about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography be given by a healthcare provider?

• A. "Urinate prior to the test."?
• B. "Have someone drive you home."?
• C. "Do not drink after midnight."?
• D. "Drink plenty of water."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client about to undergo pelvic ultrasonography is to 'Drink plenty of water.' A full bladder is required to serve as a landmark to define pelvic organs during the procedure. It is important to ensure the bladder is adequately filled. 'Urinate prior to the test' (Choice A) would not be appropriate as a full bladder is needed for better visualization. 'Have someone drive you home' (Choice B) is unnecessary as no sedation is given during the procedure, so the client can drive home on their own. 'Do not drink after midnight' (Choice C) is unrelated and not necessary for a pelvic ultrasonography examination.

3. When assessing a client's mobility status, the physical examination should start with:

• A. examining their gait.
• B. orienting to time, place, and person.
• C. performing the Romberg test.
• D. conducting the Tandem Walk test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a client's mobility status, it is crucial to start by examining their gait. Gait assessment is usually conducted as the client walks into the room. Normal gait is described as smooth, flowing, and rhythmic without the need for assistive devices. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the standard practice of beginning the assessment of mobility status with gait examination.

4. Which of the following represents a normal serum potassium level?

• A. 1.5 mEq/L
• B. 3.0 mEq/L
• C. 4.0 mEq/L
• D. 6.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 4.0 mEq/L. Normal serum potassium levels typically range from 3.5-5.5 mEq/L. Choice A (1.5 mEq/L) is below the normal range, Choice B (3.0 mEq/L) is also below the normal range, and Choice D (6.0 mEq/L) is above the normal range. Therefore, the only option within the normal range is Choice C (4.0 mEq/L).

5. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

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