a client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

2. A 51-year-old client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig disease) is admitted to the hospital because his condition is deteriorating. The client tells the nurse that he wants a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The nurse should provide the client with which information?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client requests a DNR order, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider so that the provider may discuss the request with the client. A DNR order should be written, not verbal, following agency and state guidelines. Therefore, the correct answer is that the DNR request should be discussed with the healthcare provider, who will write the order. Option A is incorrect as oral consent is not sufficient for a DNR order. Option B is incorrect because the client, not the family, has the authority to request a DNR order. Option D is incorrect because the healthcare provider discusses the request with the client but does not make the final decision.

3. A case manager is reviewing notations made in clients' records. Which note indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A case manager is responsible for coordinating a client's care and monitoring for unexpected outcomes. The situation that indicates an unexpected outcome and the need for immediate follow-up is when a client exhibits signs of increased intracranial pressure after a craniotomy. This indicates a deteriorating condition that requires urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D describe expected outcomes or normal findings related to specific conditions, which do not demand immediate follow-up.

4. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.

5. Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.

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