Nursing Elites

1. Which of these should not be included when calculating a client's fluid intake?

• A. ice chips
• B. Jell-O�
• C. pudding
• D. IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pudding is a semi-solid and does not contribute significantly to fluid intake as it does not melt at room temperature. Therefore, it should not be included in fluid intake calculations. On the other hand, ice chips, Jell-O�, and IV fluid from an antibiotic piggyback are all sources of fluid that can significantly contribute to a client's total fluid intake and should be considered when calculating it. Ice chips and Jell-O� provide hydration upon melting, while IV fluid directly adds to the fluid volume in the body.

2. When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?

• A. when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.
• B. when clients are underweight.
• C. when clients are overweight.
• D. only in underweight and overweight clients.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pressure ulcers usually occur over bony prominences and are caused by decreased circulation. The client who is left in one position in bed for extended periods of time is more prone to decreased circulation to an area of the body and to acquiring a pressure ulcer. Choices B and C are incorrect as pressure ulcers are not exclusive to underweight or overweight clients. The key factor is prolonged pressure on the skin, not the weight of the client. Therefore, the correct answer is that pressure ulcers are most likely to occur when clients are immobilized in one position for extended periods of time.

3. A client who has undergone a total hip replacement is told that she will need to go to an extended care rehabilitation facility for therapy before going home. Which member of the healthcare team should the nurse ask to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility?

• A. Physical therapist
• B. Occupational therapist
• C. Clergy
• D. Social worker

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate member of the healthcare team to plan the discharge and transition from the hospital to the rehabilitation facility is the social worker. Social workers are trained to provide counseling services, emotional support, arrange placements in care facilities, and locate financial resources for clients. While clergy provide spiritual support and guidance, physical therapists assist in physical treatments, and occupational therapists help with activities of daily living, the social worker is best suited to address the client's needs related to discharge planning and transition. Therefore, the correct answer is the social worker.

4. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

5. To assess a client's ankle ROM, which ROM exercises should the nurse have them perform?

• A. flexion, extension, hyperextension
• B. flexion, extension, abduction, adduction
• C. external rotation, internal rotation
• D. extension, flexion, inversion, eversion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is extension, flexion, inversion, and eversion. These exercises help assess the full range of motion of the ankles. Flexion and extension evaluate the bending and straightening movements of the ankle joint, respectively. Inversion and eversion assess the inward and outward movements of the foot at the ankle joint. Hyperextension, abduction, and adduction are not specific movements of the ankle joint, making choices A and B incorrect. External and internal rotation are movements more related to joints like the hip or shoulder, not the ankle, making choice C incorrect.

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