Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for the client experiencing acute pancreatitis?

• A. Confusion
• B. Latex Allergy
• C. Acute Pain
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acute Pain is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client experiencing acute pancreatitis because it is a common symptom associated with this condition. Pancreatitis often presents with severe abdominal pain that may radiate to the back. Confusion, Latex Allergy, and Constipation are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Confusion may occur in severe cases of pancreatitis with complications, but acute pain is the priority nursing diagnosis due to its prevalence and impact on the client's well-being.

2. A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, 'I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. "If you eat less, you can save some money."?
• B. "Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight."?
• C. "You should try the Atkins diet first."?
• D. "I respect your decision to choose surgery."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is to show respect and empathy towards the client's decision. Choosing surgery for weight loss is a significant decision, and acknowledging and respecting this choice is crucial in providing patient-centered care. Option D is the correct answer as it validates the client's decision and shows support. Options A, B, and C are all inappropriate as they do not address the client's feelings, lack empathy, and can be considered insensitive and unprofessional.

3. The nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) sublingual (SL) within what time frame?

• A. 15 seconds
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 5 minutes
• D. 15 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The onset of action for Nitrostat SL is 1 to 3 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should plan to evaluate the earliest onset of effectiveness within 3 minutes after administering the medication. Option A, 15 seconds, is too short of a time frame for the onset of action of Nitrostat. Option C, 5 minutes, is slightly delayed compared to the typical onset time. Option D, 15 minutes, is too long to wait for evaluating the effectiveness of Nitrostat sublingual administration.

4. A client was involved in a motor vehicle accident in which the seat belt was not worn. The client is exhibiting crepitus, decreased breath sounds on the left, complains of shortness of breath, and has a respiratory rate of 34/min. Which of the following assessment findings should concern the nurse the most?

• A. temperature of 102�F and a productive cough
• B. arterial blood gases (ABGs) with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg
• C. trachea deviating to the right
• D. barrel-chested appearance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'trachea deviating to the right.' A mediastinal shift is indicative of a tension pneumothorax, which is a dangerous complication seen in trauma patients with symptoms like crepitus, decreased breath sounds, shortness of breath, and tachypnea. Assessing for acute traumatic injuries is crucial in this context. Choice A, a temperature of 102�F and a productive cough, is common in pneumonia cases and not as concerning as a mediastinal shift. Choice B, ABGs with a PaO2 of 92 mmHg and PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, shows values within normal limits and does not suggest a tension pneumothorax. Choice D, a barrel-chested appearance, is typical of COPD and not directly related to the acute traumatic injury described. A tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency where air cannot escape the pleural cavity, leading to lung collapse and a mediastinal shift to the unaffected side with a downward displacement of the diaphragm.

5. A nurse has been ordered to administer Morphine to a patient. Which of the following effects is unrelated to Morphine's effects on the patient?

• A. Depressed function of the CNS
• B. Increased blood flow
• C. Decreased venous capacity
• D. Pain relief

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic that acts centrally to relieve pain by binding to opioid receptors in the CNS, leading to the depressed function of the CNS. Morphine also causes peripheral vasodilation, which can lead to increased blood flow. However, morphine causes venous dilation and increased venous capacity rather than decreased venous capacity. Therefore, the effect of 'Decreased venous capacity' is unrelated to Morphine's effects. Pain relief is a well-known effect of Morphine, as it acts on the CNS to alter the perception of pain.

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