which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions

1. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client would be 'Risk for Injury' as the client is prone to injuries during seizure activity, such as head trauma from falls. Epilepsy does not typically cause dysreflexia. While urinary retention may occur during or after a seizure, it is not a common nursing diagnosis related to epilepsy. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' is not a priority nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client compared to the immediate risk of injury during seizures.

2. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.

3. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

4. What action should the emergency triage nurse take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the emergency triage nurse to take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting is to seclude the client from other clients and visitors. These symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, a highly infectious disease. By secluding the client, the nurse can prevent the potential spread of the infection to others. Donning personal protective equipment, including gown, gloves, and a mask, is crucial when providing care to the client, but the immediate priority is to prevent the spread of infection by isolating the client. Placing the client in isolation until further assessment is completed ensures that the client is kept away from others until a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established, reducing the risk of transmission. Performing no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis is inappropriate as immediate isolation is necessary in suspected cases of highly infectious diseases like tuberculosis.

5. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral medication specifically effective in treating herpes infections. It works by inhibiting the replication of the herpes virus, shortening the duration of the infection. While Acyclovir can be used in HIV and AIDS patients to treat opportunistic viral infections, it is not a primary drug for managing HIV or AIDS itself. Candida is a type of fungus, and infections caused by Candida are treated with antifungal medications, not antivirals like Acyclovir. Therefore, the correct answer is herpes.

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