Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

• A. paralysis
• B. neuropathy
• C. seizure disorder
• D. myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

2. The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by performing all of the following activities except:

• A. encouraging political involvement by nurses with their legislators.
• B. acting as a first-aid provider for a children's athletic team.
• C. precepting newly licensed nurses in the work situation.
• D. encouraging as many persons to become nurses as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse acts as an advocate for the nursing profession by encouraging appropriate persons to become nurses, by being a positive role model and mentor, and by communicating the needs of nurses in the most professional manner possible to those making the laws. Encouraging as many persons as possible to become nurses may not align with the advocacy role, as the focus should be on quality rather than quantity. Choices A, B, and C are activities that align with being an advocate for the nursing profession by promoting political involvement, providing first aid, and precepting newly licensed nurses, respectively.

3. When documenting in the client’s record, what type of information should be recorded?

• A. educated predictions of outcomes
• B. personal opinions
• C. objective information
• D. subjective information

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When documenting in a client's record, it is crucial to record objective information. Objective information is factual, based on observations and measurable data. This type of information is essential for accurate and effective communication among healthcare professionals involved in the client's care. Choices A and B, educated predictions of outcomes and personal opinions, are subjective in nature and may not provide an accurate representation of the client's condition. Choice D, subjective information, includes personal feelings, interpretations, and opinions, which are not ideal for documentation as they can be biased and unreliable.

4. Which of the following is not one of the four categories related to client care plans?

• A. privacy
• B. evaluation
• C. diagnosis
• D. outcome

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The four categories related to client care plans are diagnosis, intervention, outcome, and evaluation. Privacy is not typically considered a distinct category in client care plans, as it is more of a fundamental aspect that underlies all care provided to clients. Choices B, C, and D are directly related to the components of client care plans, making them incorrect answers in this context.

5. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

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