Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

• A. paralysis
• B. neuropathy
• C. seizure disorder
• D. myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

2. A licensed practical nurse tells the certified nursing assistant (CNA) staff that they will need to comply with the mandatory overtime policy that the long-term care facility has implemented. Later that day, the nurse overhears a CNA complaining about the policy and telling other CNAs that she will not work the overtime if she has made other plans after her regular shift. What is the best approach for the nurse to use in dealing with the conflict?

• A. Providing a positive reward system for the CNA to encourage working the mandatory overtime
• B. Ignoring the complaints
• C. Avoiding assigning the CNA mandatory overtime
• D. Meeting with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the best approach for the nurse is to meet with the CNA regarding her behavior concerning the overtime policy. Initiating a discussion is crucial to address resistance by a staff member. A face-to-face meeting allows for the verbalization of feelings, identification of problems, and the opportunity to develop strategies to solve the issue. Ignoring the complaints and avoiding assigning mandatory overtime do not tackle the root of the problem. Providing a positive reward system might offer a temporary fix but does not directly address the resistance and conflict.

3. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

4. Upon first meeting, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about the previous work experience of nurses, and encourages active participation by nurses in the dialogue. Her behavior is an example of:

• A. Aggressiveness.
• B. Passive aggressiveness.
• C. Passiveness.
• D. Assertiveness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assertiveness.' This nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses, showing interest in their work experience, and encouraging active participation. Aggressive behavior is forceful and dominating, while passive behavior is submissive and timid. Passive-aggressive behavior involves indirect manipulation or control, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.

5. A nurse discharge planner is preparing a client for discharge from an acute care setting. The nurse assesses that skilled home care services are clinically indicated. This assessment is based on all of the following indicators except:

• A. the client has been admitted to the hospital three times in the last 2 months.
• B. the client has a Foley catheter.
• C. the client's family is available to care for him 24 hours a day.
• D. the client is ordered to continue IV antibiotics 5 days post discharge.

Correct answer: V

Rationale: Family availability to provide care and assistance is not an indicator for skilled home care services. In fact, the nurse might see an opportunity for family education to meet the client's needs so that less community support is needed. This should be discussed and negotiated with the family. Frequent hospital readmissions indicate that the client has not been able to manage either due to condition instability or lack of care needs being met, which is a red flag for home care services to monitor and meet those needs appropriately. A Foley catheter requires home health care due to infection potential and care requirements. IV antibiotics also necessitate home care for maintaining line patency and assessing the site.

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