Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in charge of a long-term care facility who is working with a nursing assistant on the night shift prepares to take a break. To ensure client safety during the break, which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

• A. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break if a client’s pain medication is not effective
• B. Informing the nursing assistant that she is leaving the nursing unit to get a cup of coffee from a vending machine in the lobby
• C. Asking the nursing assistant to administer a medication placed at the client's bedside if the client awakens
• D. Conducting client rounds before taking the break

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse is responsible for ensuring client safety at all times and must not leave the nursing unit for any reason during the shift. The nurse’s break should be taken in a designated area located on the nursing unit. Before taking the break, the nurse should check all clients to ensure that they are safe and comfortable and that their needs have been met. Conducting client rounds before taking the break is crucial to assess the clients' conditions and address any immediate needs, ensuring their safety. Asking the nursing assistant to contact the health care provider during the nurse’s break is not appropriate as the nurse should handle this responsibility. Leaving the nursing unit to get coffee is not recommended as the nurse should stay within the unit to respond promptly to any client needs. Asking the nursing assistant to administer medication or make clinical decisions is outside the scope of their practice and should not be delegated.

2. A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child's scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

• A. The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.
• B. The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.
• C. The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.
• D. The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The scenario describes classic impetigo, characterized by maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Antibiotic therapy is usually indicated for impetigo. Chickenpox, a highly contagious disease, presents with a history of high fever followed by a vesicular rash, different from the described maculopapular lesions with honey-colored drainage. Choice A is incorrect as the presentation is not consistent with chickenpox. Choice B is incorrect because impetigo is contagious, especially through direct contact. Choice D is also incorrect as impetigo is a contagious skin infection regardless of others having open wounds or lesions.

3. An LPN is working on the care plan for a client with diabetes mellitus. Which of these outcomes would be the most appropriate?

• A. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• B. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal range limits today.
• C. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.
• D. The client will maintain a blood glucose level within normal limits throughout my shift.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The client will maintain a blood glucose level within the normal range of 70-110 (per facility policy) throughout my shift.' This outcome is specific, measurable, and aligns with the goal of managing diabetes mellitus. Choice A is correct because it provides a clear target range (70-110) and includes adherence to facility policy, making it precise and goal-oriented. Choice B lacks specificity on the timeframe, and Choice D is vague in defining the target blood glucose range. In nursing care plans, outcomes should be well-defined, achievable, and measurable to effectively monitor the client's progress in managing their condition.

4. Which of the following statements from a client may indicate that they are at a higher risk for a fall?

• A. "I would like to get out of bed but would like to put on my non-skid socks first."?
• B. "Can you make sure the two bedrails are raised before leaving the room?"?
• C. "I think I'm ready to walk a longer distance with the cane today."?
• D. "I need to get out of bed to go to the bathroom now. I cannot find my glasses but cannot wait."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I need to get out of bed to go to the bathroom now. I cannot find my glasses but cannot wait.' This statement indicates that the client is in a hurry and unable to find their glasses, which could increase the risk of a fall due to impaired vision. Choice A about putting on non-skid socks shows the client's awareness of fall prevention, reducing the risk. Choice B demonstrates the client's request for bedrails to be raised, which is a safety measure, reducing the risk as well. Choice C suggests the client's readiness to walk a longer distance with a cane, indicating progress in mobility but not necessarily a higher fall risk.

5. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

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