which of the following describes the best way for a follower to manage up
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership and Management HESI

1. Which of the following best describes the way for a follower to 'manage up'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is to assist the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses. This approach involves supporting the manager in leveraging their strengths while helping them address and improve upon their weaknesses. Choice A is not specific enough about the context of providing feedback, which may not always be the best way to manage up. Choice C suggests avoiding the situation rather than actively managing it. Choice D, while important, does not directly address the concept of managing up by helping the manager grow and excel.

2. How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.

3. For a male client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine osmolarity is the best assessment finding supporting a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume in a male client with hyperglycemia. In hyperglycemia, there is increased glucose in the blood, which leads to osmotic diuresis. This results in the excretion of large amounts of urine that is concentrated (high osmolarity), leading to dehydration and fluid volume deficit. Cool, clammy skin (Choice A) is more indicative of poor perfusion, distended neck veins (Choice B) are associated with fluid volume excess, and decreased serum sodium level (Choice D) could be a result of dilutional hyponatremia due to fluid overload rather than deficient fluid volume.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with Cushing's syndrome, a low-grade fever should be reported immediately as it may indicate an infection. Clients with Cushing's syndrome are immunosuppressed, making them more susceptible to infections. Hyperglycemia and hypertension are common findings in Cushing's syndrome and are managed as part of the condition. Weight gain is also a common symptom in Cushing's syndrome and may not require immediate reporting unless it is sudden and severe.

5. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, Nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid crisis. Thyroid crisis, also known as thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition that can occur after a thyroidectomy. Symptoms include high fever, tachycardia, extreme restlessness, and other signs of severe hyperthyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (choice A) is a complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis, not typically seen post-thyroidectomy. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is low blood sugar levels and would not present with the symptoms described. Tetany (choice D) is a condition of involuntary muscle spasms due to low calcium levels and is not directly related to the symptoms observed in this scenario.

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