which of the following describes the best way for a follower to manage up
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership and Management HESI

1. Which of the following best describes the way for a follower to 'manage up'?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is to assist the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses. This approach involves supporting the manager in leveraging their strengths while helping them address and improve upon their weaknesses. Choice A is not specific enough about the context of providing feedback, which may not always be the best way to manage up. Choice C suggests avoiding the situation rather than actively managing it. Choice D, while important, does not directly address the concept of managing up by helping the manager grow and excel.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is fluid resuscitation with normal saline to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering insulin without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels and obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) are important aspects of DKA management but come after initial fluid resuscitation.

3. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

4. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

5. The client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about self-care management. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should not stop taking their medication even if blood sugar levels are normal. This is because ongoing management is necessary to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent skin damage and improves insulin absorption. Choice C is correct as regular monitoring of blood sugar levels is vital for managing diabetes effectively. Choice D is correct as following a healthy diet and exercising regularly are key components of diabetes management.

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