Nursing Elites

1. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

2. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, Nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
• B. Thyroid crisis
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tetany

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid crisis. Thyroid crisis, also known as thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition that can occur after a thyroidectomy. Symptoms include high fever, tachycardia, extreme restlessness, and other signs of severe hyperthyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (choice A) is a complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis, not typically seen post-thyroidectomy. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is low blood sugar levels and would not present with the symptoms described. Tetany (choice D) is a condition of involuntary muscle spasms due to low calcium levels and is not directly related to the symptoms observed in this scenario.

3. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

4. A client with type 2 DM is being treated with metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime.
• D. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as missing a meal should not lead to avoiding the medication, but the client should take it with the next meal as prescribed.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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