Nursing Elites

1. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

2. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Administer hypertonic saline
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict oral fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.

3. When implementing a new policy on the unit, what process should a nurse manager follow?

• A. The nurse manager should involve staff members in the decision-making process, gather input, and communicate the reasons for the policy change to ensure buy-in from the team.
• B. The nurse manager should implement the policy change immediately and monitor staff compliance to ensure that the new policy is being followed.
• C. The nurse manager should delegate the implementation of the policy change to a staff member and provide support as needed to ensure that the change is successful.
• D. The nurse manager should communicate the policy change to staff members, provide training as needed, and monitor the implementation process to ensure that the change is effective.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When introducing a new policy on the unit, it is essential for the nurse manager to involve staff members in the decision-making process. This approach helps in gathering input and insights from the team, fostering a sense of ownership and commitment. By communicating the reasons behind the policy change, the nurse manager ensures transparency and promotes understanding among the staff, leading to buy-in and acceptance of the new policy. Choice B is incorrect because implementing a policy change without involving staff and explaining the rationale may lead to resistance or lack of understanding. Choice C is not ideal as delegation without active involvement and communication with the team may result in misunderstandings or incomplete implementation. Choice D lacks the crucial step of involving staff in the decision-making process, which is important for successful policy implementation and team engagement.

4. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

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