Nursing Elites

1. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

2. The client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about self-care management. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will rotate my injection sites to prevent skin damage.
• B. I can stop taking my medication if my blood sugar is normal.
• C. I should monitor my blood sugar levels regularly.
• D. I should follow a healthy diet and exercise regularly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should not stop taking their medication even if blood sugar levels are normal. This is because ongoing management is necessary to control blood sugar levels and prevent complications. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent skin damage and improves insulin absorption. Choice C is correct as regular monitoring of blood sugar levels is vital for managing diabetes effectively. Choice D is correct as following a healthy diet and exercising regularly are key components of diabetes management.

3. A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

• A. U waves
• B. Absent P waves
• C. Elevated T waves
• D. Elevated ST segment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.

4. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

• A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
• B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
• C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
• D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

5. Which of the following statements is true regarding ethical principles and laws?

• A. The government enforces ethics.
• B. Laws establish standards that aid in decision-making.
• C. Ethics are highly specific.
• D. Ethical principles can serve as the foundation for laws.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ethical principles can influence the creation of laws but are not equivalent to laws themselves. Laws are established by governing bodies to provide a framework for society, whereas ethical principles guide individuals' moral conduct. Choice A is incorrect because governments enforce laws, not ethics. Choice B is incorrect as laws set legal standards rather than ethical ones. Choice C is incorrect because ethics are principles that guide behavior but are not necessarily highly specific.

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