HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?
- A. Lactic acidosis
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or other predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or irregular heartbeat, is crucial when a client is taking metformin. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not a common side effect of metformin. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is contrary to the intended effect of metformin, which is to lower blood glucose levels. Choice D, weight gain, is not typically associated with metformin use; in fact, metformin may even contribute to weight loss in some individuals.
2. The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed hyperthyroidism about the management of the condition. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should take my medication every day as prescribed.
- B. I need to avoid foods high in iodine.
- C. I can skip my medication on days when I feel fine.
- D. I should monitor my pulse regularly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with hyperthyroidism should take their medication consistently and not skip doses, even if they feel well.
3. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?
- A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
- B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
- C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
- D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.
4. A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
- A. U waves
- B. Absent P waves
- C. Elevated T waves
- D. Elevated ST segment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.
5. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?
- A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
- B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
- C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
- D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.
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