HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?
- A. Lactic acidosis
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or other predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or irregular heartbeat, is crucial when a client is taking metformin. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not a common side effect of metformin. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is contrary to the intended effect of metformin, which is to lower blood glucose levels. Choice D, weight gain, is not typically associated with metformin use; in fact, metformin may even contribute to weight loss in some individuals.
2. A healthcare professional is reading a physician's progress notes in the client's record and reads that the physician has documented 'insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily.' The healthcare professional understands that this type of fluid loss can occur through:
- A. The skin
- B. Urinary output
- C. Wound drainage
- D. The gastrointestinal tract
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insensible fluid loss refers to the fluid lost from the body that is not easily measured, such as through sweating and respiration. The skin is a major contributor to insensible fluid loss due to evaporation of water through the skin. Choice B, urinary output, represents measurable fluid loss through urine excretion. Choice C, wound drainage, is a measurable form of fluid loss that occurs externally from a wound. Choice D, the gastrointestinal tract, primarily involves fluid loss through feces and is also a measurable form of output. Therefore, the correct answer is 'A: The skin,' as it is the main route for insensible fluid loss.
3. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?
- A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
- B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
- C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
- D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.
4. What is the nurse manager’s role in improving the quality of care on the unit?
- A. The nurse manager is responsible for setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals.
- B. The nurse manager is responsible for monitoring patient outcomes and implementing changes to improve the quality of care on the unit.
- C. The nurse manager is responsible for ensuring that staff members follow established procedures and protocols to maintain the quality of care on the unit.
- D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing feedback and coaching to staff members to help them improve their performance and achieve the unit’s quality goals.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.
5. A nurse manager works hard to keep employee morale high with the thought that this will lead to effective employees doing the best work they can. Which of the following theories does this best describe?
- A. Theory X
- B. Theory Y
- C. Servant leadership
- D. Scientific management
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Theory Y, as proposed by Douglas McGregor, emphasizes that employees are intrinsically motivated and seek responsibility. It suggests that high morale leads to high productivity, aligning with the nurse manager's actions. Theory X, on the other hand, assumes employees are inherently lazy and need to be closely monitored and controlled. Servant leadership focuses on serving others first and prioritizing their needs, which is not directly related to the scenario described. Scientific management, developed by Frederick Taylor, emphasizes efficiency and standardization through systematic study and organizational control, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's approach to boosting employee morale.
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