Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Lactic acidosis
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or other predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or irregular heartbeat, is crucial when a client is taking metformin. Choice B, hypokalemia, is not a common side effect of metformin. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is contrary to the intended effect of metformin, which is to lower blood glucose levels. Choice D, weight gain, is not typically associated with metformin use; in fact, metformin may even contribute to weight loss in some individuals.

2. Which of the following best describes the nurse's role in patient education?

• A. The nurse is responsible for providing patients with information they need to make informed decisions about their care.
• B. The nurse provides education to the patient and their family to help them understand the care plan and make informed decisions.
• C. The nurse is responsible for providing patients with written materials to help them understand their condition and treatment options.
• D. The nurse provides patients with verbal and written instructions on how to manage their care at home.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse's role in patient education involves providing patients with the necessary information to make informed decisions about their care. This includes explaining treatment options, potential risks and benefits, and answering any questions the patient may have. Choice B is incorrect because while nurses do educate patients and families, the primary focus is on empowering patients to make informed decisions. Choice C is incorrect as providing written materials is a part of patient education but not the sole responsibility of the nurse. Choice D is incorrect because while nurses do provide instructions on managing care at home, patient education goes beyond just the home care aspect to encompass a broader understanding of the patient's condition and treatment.

3. Which of the following ethical principles is involved when a healthcare provider allows a patient to refuse treatment?

• A. Autonomy
• B. Nonmaleficence
• C. Beneficence
• D. Justice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that respects an individual's right to make their own decisions, including the right to refuse treatment. This principle acknowledges the patient's self-governance and independence in making choices about their own healthcare. Choice B, Nonmaleficence, refers to the ethical principle of doing no harm and ensuring patient safety. Choice C, Beneficence, involves promoting the patient's well-being and acting in their best interest. Choice D, Justice, pertains to fairness and equitable distribution of healthcare resources.

4. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

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