Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following behaviors is least appropriate when dealing with fellow staff members?

• A. Provide positive feedback and constructive criticism
• B. Serve as a resource
• C. Only report conflicts that interfere with client care
• D. Provide input for performance evaluations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least appropriate behavior when dealing with fellow staff members is to only report conflicts that interfere with client care. This choice implies ignoring or neglecting other conflicts that may affect team dynamics and the work environment. It is crucial to address and report all conflicts, whether they impact client care directly or not, to maintain a harmonious and effective working relationship within the healthcare setting. Providing positive feedback, constructive criticism, serving as a resource, and offering input for performance evaluations are all important and appropriate behaviors that contribute to a supportive and professional work environment. By focusing solely on conflicts that interfere with client care, essential issues that influence teamwork and overall staff morale may be overlooked, potentially leading to a negative impact on the work environment.

2. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) in the long-term care unit who has another LPN and a nursing assistant on the nursing team is planning task assignments for the day. Which task should the nurse assign to the LPN?

• A. Monitoring a client receiving oxygen who requires frequent pulse oximetry monitoring and respiratory treatments
• B. Assisting a client who is wearing eye patches and requires assistance with hygiene measures
• C. Feeding a client on bedrest who needs assistance with feeding
• D. Turning a client who must be turned and repositioned every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse assigns tasks for a client's care to another staff member, the nurse is responsible for appropriately assigning tasks based on the educational level and competency of the staff member. In this scenario, the LPN should be assigned the task of monitoring a client receiving oxygen who requires frequent pulse oximetry monitoring and respiratory treatments. This is because the LPN is competent to perform these tasks and can accurately note changes in the client's condition. Tasks such as feeding a client, turning and repositioning a client, and assisting with hygiene measures, which are noninvasive interventions, can be assigned to a nursing assistant. These tasks do not require the same level of assessment and monitoring as the respiratory treatments and pulse oximetry monitoring.

3. A nurse enters a client's room to administer a medication that has been prescribed by the health care provider. The client asks the nurse about the medication. Which response by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. 'I know that it's for fluid buildup, and I think you've taken it before.''
• B. 'It's called furosemide (Lasix), and it will promote urination and rid your body of the excess fluid. It can cause an alteration in electrolyte levels, so we'll need to increase the potassium in your diet.''
• C. 'It's to help get rid of the swelling in your feet.''
• D. ''You need to discuss this medication with your health care provider.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client has the right to be informed of the medication name, purpose, action, and potential undesirable effects of a prescribed medication. The nurse should provide adequate information to the client. Choice B is the correct answer as it includes the medication name, its purpose (promoting urination and eliminating excess fluid), and a potential side effect (alteration in electrolyte levels) with a plan for managing it (increasing potassium in the diet). This response demonstrates thorough and complete information. Choice A provides some information but lacks details on potential side effects and dietary adjustments. Choice C is vague and does not provide specific details about the medication. Choice D deflects the client's question and does not fulfill the client's right to information.

4. Which of the following tests is commonly performed on newborns with jaundice?

• A. blood urea nitrogen
• B. magnesium
• C. bilirubin
• D. prolactin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: bilirubin. A high bilirubin level is found in newborns with hepatic immaturity, leading to jaundice. Testing bilirubin levels is crucial in diagnosing and monitoring jaundice in newborns. Choices A, B, and D (blood urea nitrogen, magnesium, and prolactin) are not commonly performed tests for evaluating jaundice in newborns. Blood urea nitrogen is a measure of kidney function, magnesium levels are usually checked in metabolic disorders, and prolactin is a hormone related to lactation, none of which are directly relevant to assessing jaundice in newborns.

5. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

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