Nursing Elites

1. Which is the proper hand position for performing chest vibration?

• A. cup the hands
• B. use the side of the hands
• C. flatten the hands
• D. spread the fingers of both hands

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct hand position for performing chest vibration is to flatten the hands. By flattening the hands over the area of the body where chest percussion is applied, vibrations can be conducted effectively to the chest to help loosen secretions. Cupping the hands may dampen vibrations, using the side of the hands reduces the surface area in contact with the chest, and spreading the fingers can lead to uneven pressure distribution. Therefore, flattening the hands provides the necessary contact and surface area to perform chest vibration efficiently.

2. When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?

• A. current medications
• B. ambulation abilities
• C. family history
• D. hydration status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

3. A client turns her ankle. She is diagnosed as having a Pulled Ligament. This should be documented as a:

• A. sprain.
• B. strain.
• C. subluxation.
• D. dislocation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sprain is the correct term for the excessive stretching of a ligament, which is what happens when a ligament is pulled. A strain involves muscle tissue. Subluxation refers to a partial dislocation, and dislocation is a complete displacement of bones in a joint. In this case, since it's a pulled ligament, the most appropriate term is a sprain.

4. The physician's role in case management includes all of the following except:

• A. participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients.
• B. serving as the expert for resource utilization.
• C. consulting with the case management team to facilitate timely orders as needed.
• D. contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'serving as the expert for resource utilization.' While physicians play a crucial role in case management, their primary focus is on medical diagnosis and treatment rather than resource utilization. Choices A, C, and D are all roles that physicians typically fulfill in case management. A physician participating in interdisciplinary planning for clients ensures comprehensive care, consulting with the case management team helps in coordinating timely orders, and contributing to the documentation of a client's needs for services aids in providing appropriate care. Therefore, serving as the expert for resource utilization does not align with the primary responsibilities of a physician in case management.

5. Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes serosanguinous drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. notify the physician of the drainage.
• B. change the dressing.
• C. reinforce the dressing.
• D. apply an abdominal binder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serosanguinous drainage is expected after a classic cholecystectomy resection. The appropriate intervention is to reinforce the dressing to maintain pressure and promote clot formation. Changing the dressing prematurely increases the risk of infection as it disturbs the wound. Applying an abdominal binder is not indicated as it can interfere with visualizing the dressing and assessing for any signs of bleeding or infection. Notifying the physician is not necessary at this point unless there are signs of excessive bleeding or other concerning symptoms.

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