which of the following actions by the rn would be considered false imprisonment
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5

1. Which of the following actions by the healthcare provider would be considered false imprisonment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. False imprisonment occurs when a healthcare provider restrains a client from leaving against their will, even if the provider believes it is in the client's best interest. In this scenario, telling the client they are not allowed to leave until the physician has released them constitutes false imprisonment as it restricts the client's freedom of movement. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client why they wish to leave is a form of assessment and does not involve restraining the client. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to educating the client about their medical condition. Choice D is incorrect because asking the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form is a legal and ethical procedure to ensure the client understands the risks of leaving against medical advice.

2. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tetany.' Tetany is characterized by muscle twitching, tingling, and numbness, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. After a thyroidectomy, accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands can lead to decreased calcium levels, resulting in tetany. Choice B, 'Hemorrhage,' is incorrect as it typically presents with symptoms such as sudden swelling, increased pain, or drop in blood pressure. Choice C, 'Thyroid storm,' is incorrect as it involves a sudden exacerbation of hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms like fever, tachycardia, and confusion. Choice D, 'Laryngeal nerve damage,' is incorrect as it would manifest with voice changes, difficulty swallowing, or respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in the scenario.

3. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

4. The client with hyperparathyroidism is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with hyperparathyroidism should avoid high-calcium foods like milk because they already have elevated calcium levels. Bananas and spinach are not high in calcium and can be included in the diet. Processed meats are not specifically contraindicated in hyperparathyroidism, so they are not the correct answer.

5. The client has been vomiting and has had numerous episodes of diarrhea. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, there is a risk of significant potassium loss, leading to potential electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial in this situation to assess and manage any abnormalities promptly. Serum calcium (Choice A) is not typically affected by vomiting and diarrhea. Serum phosphorus (Choice B) levels are not commonly altered by these symptoms. Serum sodium (Choice D) may be affected in severe cases of dehydration, but potassium monitoring is a higher priority due to its potential for rapid depletion in vomiting and diarrhea.

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