a client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole the nurse should instruct the client that the purpose of this medication is to

HESI RN

Leadership HESI

1. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. The nurse should instruct the client that the purpose of this medication is to:

A. Decrease thyroid hormone production
B. Increase thyroid hormone production
C. Suppress the immune system
D. Prevent thyroid storm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease thyroid hormone production. Methimazole works by inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones, specifically by blocking the enzyme responsible for this process. By reducing the production of thyroid hormones, methimazole helps to normalize the elevated levels seen in hyperthyroidism. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B, 'Increase thyroid hormone production,' is inaccurate as methimazole actually decreases thyroid hormone production. Choice C, 'Suppress the immune system,' is unrelated to the mechanism of action of methimazole. Choice D, 'Prevent thyroid storm,' is not the primary purpose of methimazole; while it may help prevent worsening of hyperthyroidism, its main action is to reduce thyroid hormone levels.

2. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

A. Prominent U waves
B. Prolonged PR interval
C. Depressed ST segment
D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

3. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

4. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

5. An RN enters a patient's room to place an indwelling urinary catheter, as ordered by the healthcare professional. The client is alert and oriented and tells the RN he wants to leave the hospital now and not receive further treatment. Which of the following actions by the RN would be considered false imprisonment?

A. The RN tells the client he is not allowed to leave until the physician has released him.
B. The RN asks the client why he wishes to leave.
C. The RN asks the client to explain what he understands about his medical diagnosis.
D. The RN asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: False imprisonment occurs when a person is prevented from leaving against their will. By telling the patient they are not allowed to leave, the RN is restricting the patient’s freedom unlawfully. Choice B is focused on understanding the patient's reasons for leaving and does not involve restricting the patient's freedom. Choice C aims to assess the patient's understanding of their medical condition, which is unrelated to false imprisonment. Choice D involves obtaining consent for leaving against medical advice, which is a legal and ethical process and not false imprisonment.