Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing diagnosis takes the highest priority for a female client with hyperthyroidism?

• A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess
• B. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing
• C. Body image disturbance related to weight gain and edema
• D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess. In hyperthyroidism, increased metabolic rate leads to increased nutritional needs, causing weight loss and muscle wasting. Therefore, addressing imbalanced nutrition due to excessive thyroid hormone is a priority. Choice A is incorrect as hyperthyroidism typically leads to weight loss, not weight gain. Choice B is less of a priority as skin issues are secondary to the metabolic disturbances caused by hyperthyroidism. Choice C, body image disturbance, is important but addressing the client's nutritional needs should take precedence to prevent further complications.

2. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should expect which of the following symptoms?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client experiencing hypoglycemia, tachycardia is a common symptom. This occurs due to the release of adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, which stimulates the heart to beat faster. Polyuria, the increased production of urine, flushed skin, and dry mouth are not typical symptoms of hypoglycemia. Polyuria is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Flushed skin and dry mouth are not direct physiological responses to low blood sugar levels.

3. How often should rotation sites for insulin injection be separated from one another?

• A. Every third day.
• B. Every week.
• C. Every 2-3 weeks.
• D. Every 2-4 weeks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Insulin injection sites should be rotated every 2-3 weeks to prevent lipodystrophy and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A ('Every third day') is too frequent and does not allow enough time for the previous site to heal properly. Option B ('Every week') might not provide adequate time for the tissue to recover. Option D ('Every 2-4 weeks') could potentially lead to overuse of a single injection site, increasing the risk of lipodystrophy and inconsistent insulin absorption. Therefore, the recommended interval of every 2-3 weeks is optimal for insulin injection site rotation.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
• D. Serum osmolarity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.

Similar Questions