Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following laboratory results would the nurse expect?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excess of aldosterone production, leading to increased sodium retention and potassium excretion by the kidneys. This results in hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice A). Hypernatremia (Choice B) is an incorrect choice as hyperaldosteronism primarily affects potassium and not sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is also incorrect because hyperaldosteronism causes potassium excretion, leading to low levels. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism; instead, it is more related to conditions affecting calcium regulation.

2. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

3. A client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Give the client a glass of orange juice.
• B. Administer insulin as ordered.
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action when a client with DM is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step is crucial to confirm hypoglycemia before initiating any treatment. Giving the client orange juice (Choice A) is a common intervention for treating hypoglycemia, but it should not be done before confirming the blood glucose level. Administering insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate for hypoglycemia as it would further decrease the blood glucose levels. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be important, but the immediate priority is to assess the blood glucose level to guide treatment.

4. When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, Nurse Ruby should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits this description?

• A. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
• B. Mexiletine (Mexitil)
• C. Prednisone (Orasone)
• D. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin). Sulfisoxazole is known to potentiate hypoglycemia, making it unsafe for clients with a history of hypoglycemia. Choice B, Mexiletine, is a medication used to treat certain heart rhythm problems and is not associated with hypoglycemia. Choice C, Prednisone, is a corticosteroid and does not potentiate hypoglycemia. Choice D, Lithium carbonate, is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder and does not typically potentiate hypoglycemia. Therefore, the drug that Nurse Ruby should avoid in this case is Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) to prevent worsening the client's hypoglycemic condition.

5. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
• D. Serum osmolarity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.

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