Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic medication. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus is taking oral antidiabetic medication, the nurse should closely monitor for hypoglycemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood sugar levels drop below normal range, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of oral antidiabetic medications. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is the opposite of the desired effect of antidiabetic medications, which aim to lower blood sugar levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not directly associated with oral antidiabetic medications; it refers to a slow heart rate.

2. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage oral fluids
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Administer potassium supplements
• D. Increase sodium intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with SIADH is to restrict fluid intake. SIADH leads to water retention and dilution of sodium levels in the body, resulting in hyponatremia. Restricting fluid intake helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering potassium supplements (Choice C) is not directly related to managing SIADH. Increasing sodium intake (Choice D) is contraindicated because it can worsen hyponatremia in clients with SIADH.

3. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with DM who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:

• A. High risk for deficient fluid volume
• B. Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
• D. Disabled family coping: compromised

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) experiencing hyperglycemia would be 'High risk for deficient fluid volume.' Hyperglycemia can lead to osmotic diuresis, causing significant fluid loss and an increased risk of deficient fluid volume. This nursing diagnosis addresses the immediate physiological concern related to fluid balance.\n\nChoice B, 'Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment,' focuses on the client's understanding of DM, which is important but not the priority when the client is at risk of fluid volume deficit.\n\nChoice C, 'Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements,' pertains to inadequate intake of nutrients, which is not the priority concern when fluid volume deficit poses a more immediate threat.\n\nChoice D, 'Disabled family coping: compromised,' addresses a psychosocial aspect and is not the priority over the critical physiological issue of fluid volume deficit in a client with hyperglycemia.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

5. The client has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake
• B. Administer hypertonic saline
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Restrict oral fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. This is because SIADH leads to excessive production of antidiuretic hormone, causing water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. By restricting oral fluids, the nurse helps prevent further water retention and imbalance of electrolytes. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) would exacerbate the condition by further increasing fluid retention. Administering hypertonic saline (Choice B) is not the primary treatment for SIADH, as it may worsen the imbalance. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is not appropriate since SIADH leads to water retention, not dehydration.

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