HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic medication. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus is taking oral antidiabetic medication, the nurse should closely monitor for hypoglycemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood sugar levels drop below normal range, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of oral antidiabetic medications. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is the opposite of the desired effect of antidiabetic medications, which aim to lower blood sugar levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not directly associated with oral antidiabetic medications; it refers to a slow heart rate.
2. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.
3. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:
- A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
- B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
- C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
- D. Felodipine (Plendil)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.
5. A female client with physical findings suggestive of a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, necessitating a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening before the surgery, Nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions provided to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize?
- A. You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.
- B. You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.
- C. You must restrict your fluid intake.
- D. You must report ringing in your ears immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, it is crucial to avoid activities such as coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose to prevent an increase in intracranial pressure or the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Coughing, sneezing, or nose blowing can strain the surgical site, potentially leading to complications. Lying flat for 24 hours is not typically required after this surgery. Fluid intake should be encouraged to prevent dehydration. Ringing in the ears is not a common complication associated with this type of surgery.
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