Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?

• A. Excessive sodium intake
• B. A pituitary adenoma
• C. Deficient potassium intake
• D. An adrenal adenoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism is typically caused by an adrenal adenoma, a benign tumor in the adrenal gland that leads to excessive aldosterone production. Excessive sodium intake (Choice A) does not directly cause hyperaldosteronism. Pituitary adenoma (Choice B) is associated with conditions like Cushing's disease, not hyperaldosteronism. Deficient potassium intake (Choice C) can lead to hypokalemia but is not a common cause of hyperaldosteronism.

2. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

• A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
• B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
• C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
• D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

3. A client with type 2 DM is being treated with metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication before bedtime.
• D. Avoid taking the medication if you miss a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improves absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as missing a meal should not lead to avoiding the medication, but the client should take it with the next meal as prescribed.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should prioritize which of the following preoperative actions?

• A. Administer a full dose of insulin before surgery
• B. Hold all oral hypoglycemic agents the day before surgery
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels closely before surgery
• D. Instruct the client to avoid all fluids the morning of surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels closely before surgery is the priority for a client with diabetes mellitus. This allows for early detection of any abnormalities and helps prevent hypo- or hyperglycemia complications that can arise during the perioperative period. Option A is incorrect because insulin dosing should be individualized based on the client's current blood glucose levels and the surgical plan. Option B is incorrect as abruptly holding oral hypoglycemic agents can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Option D is incorrect as adequate fluid intake is important for the client's hydration status and overall well-being before surgery.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased urine output.' Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone, leading to water retention and decreased urine output. Therefore, the nurse should expect the client to have decreased urine output. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not typically associated with SIADH as it usually leads to dilutional hyponatremia. Hypotension (Choice B) is not a common clinical manifestation of SIADH. Polyuria (Choice D) is the opposite of what is expected in a client with SIADH, who typically presents with decreased urine output.

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