Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?

• A. Excessive sodium intake
• B. A pituitary adenoma
• C. Deficient potassium intake
• D. An adrenal adenoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism is typically caused by an adrenal adenoma, a benign tumor in the adrenal gland that leads to excessive aldosterone production. Excessive sodium intake (Choice A) does not directly cause hyperaldosteronism. Pituitary adenoma (Choice B) is associated with conditions like Cushing's disease, not hyperaldosteronism. Deficient potassium intake (Choice C) can lead to hypokalemia but is not a common cause of hyperaldosteronism.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being discharged after receiving initial treatment. What should the nurse emphasize as a crucial instruction?

• A. Take insulin as prescribed, even if you are not eating.
• B. Avoid all forms of physical exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly and report any changes.
• D. Stop taking oral antidiabetic medication if your blood glucose levels are normal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is a critical aspect of managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. This allows the individual to track their blood sugar levels, understand the effectiveness of the treatment plan, and detect any fluctuations promptly. Option A is incorrect because insulin should be taken based on a prescribed schedule that correlates with meals to prevent hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option B is incorrect as physical exercise is beneficial for managing diabetes but should be done cautiously with adjustments in insulin or food intake. Option D is incorrect because discontinuing oral antidiabetic medications without healthcare provider guidance can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in a client with DKA is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline for fluid resuscitation. This is crucial to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion, addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA. Administering insulin without addressing the dehydration can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but is not the first priority; potassium levels can shift with fluid resuscitation. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is helpful in assessing acid-base status but is not the initial priority compared to fluid resuscitation.

4. A client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hyperglycemia. Corticosteroid therapy can lead to hyperglycemia by increasing blood glucose levels. Corticosteroids can induce insulin resistance, decrease glucose uptake by tissues, and promote gluconeogenesis. While corticosteroid therapy can cause hypoglycemia in some cases, it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or certain medications. Hyponatremia (choice D) is typically not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy unless there are other contributing factors present.

5. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, Nurse April is most likely to detect:

• A. A blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg
• B. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
• C. Bradycardia
• D. A blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. The normal blood pressure range is around 120/80 mm Hg, so a blood pressure reading of 176/88 mm Hg is most likely to be detected in a client with pheochromocytoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because pheochromocytoma typically presents with hypertension, not a normal or low blood pressure (choice A), not related to blood glucose levels (choice B), and not bradycardia (choice C).

Similar Questions