Nursing Elites

1. What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?

• A. Excessive sodium intake
• B. A pituitary adenoma
• C. Deficient potassium intake
• D. An adrenal adenoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism is typically caused by an adrenal adenoma, a benign tumor in the adrenal gland that leads to excessive aldosterone production. Excessive sodium intake (Choice A) does not directly cause hyperaldosteronism. Pituitary adenoma (Choice B) is associated with conditions like Cushing's disease, not hyperaldosteronism. Deficient potassium intake (Choice C) can lead to hypokalemia but is not a common cause of hyperaldosteronism.

2. What is the nurse's responsibility when dealing with an impaired colleague?

• A. The nurse should report the colleague to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice.
• B. The nurse should confront the colleague directly and offer support to seek help for the impairment.
• C. Nonmaleficence
• D. The nurse should ignore the colleague's behavior and focus on their own responsibilities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse encounters an impaired colleague, the appropriate action is to report the behavior to a supervisor and follow the institution's policy for addressing impaired practice. This ensures patient safety and upholds professional standards. Choice B is incorrect because confronting the colleague directly may not be appropriate or effective in addressing the issue, and the colleague may need more structured assistance. Choice C is a principle of ethical practice but does not directly address the specific situation of dealing with an impaired colleague. Choice D is incorrect because ignoring the colleague's behavior could potentially compromise patient safety and is not in line with professional responsibility.

3. A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

• A. U waves
• B. Absent P waves
• C. Elevated T waves
• D. Elevated ST segment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.

4. During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?

• A. Trousseau's sign
• B. Homans' sign
• C. Hegar's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.

5. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client?

• A. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment.
• B. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing.
• C. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention.
• D. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Wet-to-dry dressings are utilized in this case to debride the wound by removing dead tissue and promoting healing by secondary intention. Choice A is incorrect as wet-to-dry dressings do not provide a moist wound environment; instead, they promote drying to aid in debridement. Choice B is incorrect because their primary purpose is not to protect the wound but to remove dead tissue. Choice D is incorrect as the main function of wet-to-dry dressings is not to prevent the entrance of microorganisms or minimize wound discomfort.

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