Nursing Elites

1. When should a new nurse graduate consider applying for a position as a nurse manager?

• A. When she is comfortable in her current position
• B. When she begins mentoring other new nurses
• C. As soon as a position opens
• D. When she has developed leadership and clinical expertise

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A new nurse graduate should consider applying for a position as a nurse manager when she has developed leadership and clinical expertise. Option A, 'When she is comfortable in her current position,' is incorrect as comfort in the current position may not necessarily align with the skills required for a managerial role. Option B, 'When she begins mentoring other new nurses,' is not a definitive indicator of readiness for a managerial position. Option C, 'As soon as a position opens,' does not take into account the necessary skills and experience required for a nurse manager role. Therefore, the best time to consider applying for a nurse manager position is after developing the required leadership and clinical expertise.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

3. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

4. A client with Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for surgery to remove an adrenal tumor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications postoperatively?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative hypotension is a common complication after adrenal tumor removal in a client with Cushing's syndrome. This occurs due to the sudden withdrawal of cortisol, which leads to a relative adrenal insufficiency state. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is more common preoperatively due to excessive cortisol levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and Hyponatremia (Choice D) are also associated with Cushing's syndrome but are less likely to be immediate postoperative complications compared to hypotension.

5. A client with terminal pancreatic cancer asks questions about a do not resuscitate order. Which of the following statements should be included in the RN's teaching to the client?

• A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead.
• B. Physicians must write do not resuscitate (DNR) orders.
• C. A DNR order can be written after the healthcare provider has discussed it with the client and family.
• D. A DNR requires a court decision.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A DNR order is typically written after the healthcare provider has discussed the implications with the patient and their family. This ensures that the patient and family are fully informed before making such a critical decision. Choice A is incorrect because pronouncing clinical death is a medical determination, not directly related to DNR orders. Choice B is incorrect because while physicians commonly write DNR orders, the discussion with the patient and family is crucial. Choice D is incorrect because a DNR order does not require a court decision; it is a decision made in collaboration with the healthcare team and the patient or family.

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