effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future
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HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

2. What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism is typically caused by an adrenal adenoma, a benign tumor in the adrenal gland that leads to excessive aldosterone production. Excessive sodium intake (Choice A) does not directly cause hyperaldosteronism. Pituitary adenoma (Choice B) is associated with conditions like Cushing's disease, not hyperaldosteronism. Deficient potassium intake (Choice C) can lead to hypokalemia but is not a common cause of hyperaldosteronism.

3. The client with hyperthyroidism is receiving propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Propylthiouracil can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this potential side effect early. Choice B, hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with propylthiouracil use. Choice C, hypertension, is not a common side effect of propylthiouracil. Choice D, weight gain, is also not a typical side effect of propylthiouracil therapy.

4. A client with type 2 DM is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction when taking metformin (Glucophage) is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice B is incorrect because taking metformin on an empty stomach can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect because missing a meal does not mean the medication should be avoided; the client should still take it with the next meal. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific recommendation to take metformin before bedtime.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer NPH insulin to a client with DM. The nurse notes that the NPH insulin vial is cloudy. The nurse should:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to draw up the cloudy insulin as ordered. NPH insulin is inherently cloudy due to its suspension of insulin crystals. Shaking the vial vigorously can lead to denaturation of the insulin molecules, altering its efficacy. Warming NPH insulin is not necessary as it can cause breakdown of insulin molecules. The nurse should gently roll the vial between hands to mix it before drawing it up to ensure an even distribution of insulin in the suspension.

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