Nursing Elites

1. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

2. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic medication. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus is taking oral antidiabetic medication, the nurse should closely monitor for hypoglycemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood sugar levels drop below normal range, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating. Weight gain (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of oral antidiabetic medications. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is the opposite of the desired effect of antidiabetic medications, which aim to lower blood sugar levels. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not directly associated with oral antidiabetic medications; it refers to a slow heart rate.

4. During a physical assessment of a client with type 2 DM, a nurse notes the following findings: fasting blood glucose of 120 mg/dl, temperature of 101°F, pulse 88 bpm, respirations 22/min, and BP 140/84 mmHg. Which finding should concern the nurse the most?

• A. Pulse
• B. BP
• C. Respiration
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Temperature.' A temperature of 101°F indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection. In individuals with diabetes, infections can lead to significant complications and affect blood glucose control. Monitoring and addressing infections promptly are crucial in individuals with diabetes to prevent worsening of their condition. Choice A, 'Pulse,' is within the normal range (60-100 bpm) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Choice B, 'BP,' while slightly elevated, is not as acutely concerning as an elevated temperature in this scenario. Choice C, 'Respiration,' falls within the normal range (12-20 breaths/min) and is not the most concerning finding among the options provided.

5. In a client with hypoparathyroidism, the nurse should expect which laboratory result?

• A. Increased calcium levels
• B. Decreased phosphorus levels
• C. Increased phosphorus levels
• D. Increased potassium levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypoparathyroidism, there is a deficiency of parathyroid hormone, leading to decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Increased phosphorus levels' (Choice C). Choice A, 'Increased calcium levels,' is incorrect because hypoparathyroidism is associated with low calcium levels. Choice B, 'Decreased phosphorus levels,' is incorrect as phosphorus levels are typically elevated in hypoparathyroidism. Choice D, 'Increased potassium levels,' is not directly related to hypoparathyroidism and is not an expected laboratory result in this condition.

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