Nursing Elites

1. Which dietary instruction is most important for a client with renal disease?

• A. Avoid all protein-rich foods.
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day.
• C. Increase potassium intake to prevent weakness.
• D. Eat small, frequent meals high in carbohydrates.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important dietary instruction for a client with renal disease is to limit fluid intake to 1500 ml/day. This is essential to prevent fluid overload, manage electrolyte balance, and reduce strain on the kidneys. Choice A is incorrect because while protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, avoiding all protein-rich foods is not recommended as some protein intake is essential for overall health. Choice C is incorrect because increasing potassium intake is generally not advised for clients with renal disease, as they often need to limit potassium intake. Choice D is also incorrect because while consuming small, frequent meals may be helpful, emphasizing a diet high in carbohydrates is not typically the primary focus for clients with renal disease.

2. The nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. After administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Heart rate
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Apnea episodes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Surfactant therapy is used to improve lung function and gas exchange in premature infants with respiratory distress. Monitoring arterial blood gases is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and ensure adequate oxygenation. While monitoring heart rate is important in neonatal care, assessing arterial blood gases will provide direct information regarding the infant's oxygenation status post-surfactant administration. Bowel sounds are not directly related to the respiratory distress symptoms described, and monitoring apnea episodes, although important in preterm infants, is not the most crucial assessment immediately following surfactant administration.

3. Which client is at greatest risk for developing delirium?

• A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to pain.
• B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago.
• C. A young adult taking antipsychotic medications twice daily.
• D. A middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Older adults who have attempted suicide are at higher risk for developing delirium, especially in the context of underlying mental health conditions. Choice A is incorrect as sleep disturbances due to pain may lead to discomfort but not necessarily delirium. Choice C is incorrect as taking antipsychotic medications, if managed well, does not inherently increase the risk of delirium. Choice D is incorrect as using supplemental oxygen alone does not significantly increase the risk of developing delirium.

4. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• B. Monitor the client’s prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• D. Monitor the client’s red blood cell count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

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