Nursing Elites

1. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake.
• B. Have small frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals.
• C. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods.
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake is the most appropriate diet instruction for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis. High-fiber foods help prevent constipation and promote bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications such as diverticulitis. Adequate fluid intake is crucial to soften stool and aid in digestion. Choice B, having small frequent meals and sitting up after meals, may be beneficial for some gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to diverticulosis. Choice C, eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods, is not necessary for diverticulosis management. Choice D, consuming a soft diet with increased milk and milk products, may worsen symptoms in diverticulosis due to the potential for increased gas production and bloating.

2. A client with a history of type 1 diabetes Mellitus (DM) and asthma is readmitted to the unit for the third time in two months with a current fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 325mg/dl (18mmol/L SI). The client describes to the nurse not understanding why the blood glucose level continues to be out of control. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Have the client describe a typical day at work, home, and social activities
• B. Determine if the client is using a new insulin needle for each administration
• C. Evaluate the client's asthma medications that can elevate blood glucose
• D. Have the client demonstrate the technique used to monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the client describe a typical day at work, home, and social activities. By understanding the client's daily routine, the nurse can gain valuable insights into lifestyle factors that may be impacting blood glucose control. This information is essential for identifying potential triggers or patterns contributing to the elevated blood sugar levels. Option B, determining if the client is using a new insulin needle for each administration, focuses more on the technical aspect of insulin delivery and is not directly related to daily activities affecting blood glucose levels. Option C, evaluating the client's asthma medications that can elevate blood glucose, could be relevant but is not as directly linked to the client's lifestyle choices as option A. Option D, having the client demonstrate the technique for monitoring blood glucose levels, is important for assessing their skills but does not provide information on daily activities that may be influencing blood sugar levels.

3. A nurse is preparing for intershift report when a nurse’s aide pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Checking the hourly urine output
• C. Checking the IV site for infiltration
• D. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of shock, indicated by tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position is the initial action to improve venous return, cardiac output, and subsequently increase blood pressure. This position helps redistribute blood flow to vital organs. Calling the physician should follow once immediate intervention has been initiated. Checking the hourly urine output and IV site are important assessments but are secondary to addressing the client's hemodynamic instability and potential for shock.

4. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:

• A. Improvement in the client
• B. The need for antiretroviral therapy
• C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy
• D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.

5. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic liver disease?

• A. Alcohol abuse.
• B. Hepatitis C infection.
• C. Obesity.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis C infection is a common cause of chronic liver disease due to its long-term effects on the liver. Hepatitis C can lead to liver inflammation, fibrosis, cirrhosis, and even liver cancer. Alcohol abuse can also cause liver damage, but hepatitis C infection is specifically known for its chronic impact on liver health. Obesity and smoking, while detrimental to overall health, are not typically direct causes of chronic liver disease like hepatitis C infection.

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