Nursing Elites

1. A client is hospitalized with heart failure (HF). Which intervention should the nurse implement to improve ventilation and reduce venous return?

• A. Perform passive range of motion exercises
• B. Place the client in high Fowler's position
• C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Increase the client's activity level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with heart failure, placing them in high Fowler's position is beneficial as it helps reduce venous return and improve ventilation. This position aids in decreasing the workload on the heart by promoting better lung expansion and oxygenation. Passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are not directly related to improving ventilation or reducing venous return. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice C) may help with oxygenation but does not directly address reducing venous return. Increasing the client's activity level (Choice D) may worsen heart failure symptoms by increasing the workload on the heart.

2. The provider has ordered Kayexalate and sorbitol to be administered to a patient. The nurse caring for this patient would expect which serum electrolyte values prior to administration of this therapy?

• A. Sodium 125 mEq/L and potassium 2.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 150 mEq/L and potassium 3.6 mEq/L
• C. Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L
• D. Sodium 148 mEq/L and potassium 5.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe hyperkalemia, with a potassium level of 6.9 mEq/L, requires aggressive treatment with Kayexalate and sorbitol to increase the body’s excretion of potassium. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L, so patients with the other potassium levels would not be treated aggressively or would need potassium supplementation. Therefore, option C (Sodium 135 mEq/L and potassium 6.9 mEq/L) is the correct choice as it indicates severe hyperkalemia warranting the administration of Kayexalate and sorbitol. Options A, B, and D have either potassium levels within normal limits, which would not necessitate this aggressive treatment, or potassium levels that are lower than what would typically prompt the need for Kayexalate and sorbitol.

3. A young adult client, admitted to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs (packed red blood cells). The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all the PRBCs have been transfused?

• A. 0.19
• B. 0.09
• C. 0.39
• D. 0.29

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The expected increase in hematocrit after transfusion is approximately 3% per unit of PRBCs. Since the client received 4 units, the expected increase would be 4 x 3% = 12%. Therefore, adding this to the pretransfusion hematocrit of 17% would result in an expected post-transfusion hematocrit of 29%. Choice A (0.19) is incorrect as it doesn't consider the incremental increase per unit of PRBCs. Choices B (0.09) and C (0.39) are also incorrect as they do not align with the expected increase in hematocrit following the transfusion of 4 units of PRBCs.

4. A female patient who is allergic to penicillin will begin taking an antibiotic to treat a lower respiratory tract infection. The patient tells the nurse that she almost always develops a vaginal yeast infection when she takes antibiotics and that she will take fluconazole (Diflucan) with the antibiotic being prescribed. Which macrolide should the nurse question for this patient?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
• D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription of erythromycin for this patient. When erythromycin is given concurrently with fluconazole, erythromycin blood concentration and the risk of sudden cardiac death increase. Therefore, it is not recommended to use erythromycin in combination with fluconazole for this patient. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and fidaxomicin are alternative macrolide antibiotics that can be considered for this patient without the same risk of interactions when used with fluconazole.

5. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

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