Nursing Elites

1. A client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion should be informed by the nurse that:

• A. The procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department
• B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours
• C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed
• D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before cardiac catheterization, the nurse should inform the client that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department, not the operating room. The client should expect to lie still on an x-ray table for the duration of the procedure, not necessarily for about 4 hours. Keeping the eyes closed is not necessary as the room is usually dimly lit. The client may experience sensations of warmth or flushing during the procedure due to catheter passage and dye injection, making choice D the correct answer.

2. A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet.
• B. The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications.
• C. The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed.
• D. These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CRP is a marker of inflammation, which is elevated in cardiovascular disease. Statins and aspirin help lower CRP and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.

3. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

• A. Supine position.
• B. Fowler's position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Lateral recumbent position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.

4. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

• A. Seafood
• B. Penicillin
• C. Bee stings
• D. Red food dye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.

5. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur that is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that the client's distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a Doppler pulse device
• B. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg
• C. Offer ice chips and clear oral liquids
• D. Monitor the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the application of the splint is the priority as it ensures it is not too tight, which could impair circulation and exacerbate the diminished pulses. Verifying pedal pulses with a Doppler pulse device may be indicated but does not directly address the immediate concern of proper splint application. Offering ice chips and clear oral liquids would not address the issue of diminished distal pulses. Monitoring the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pressure is important but would not directly address the cause of the diminished pulses in this scenario.

Similar Questions