Nursing Elites

1. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:

• A. one commercially prepared glucose tablet
• B. two hard candies
• C. 4-6 ounces of fruit juice
• D. 2-3 teaspoons of honey

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10-15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2-3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4-6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

2. After administering enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously into the abdomen, which action should the nurse take?

• A. Gently rub the injection site after removing the needle
• B. Have the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes
• C. Remove the needle and engage the needle safety device
• D. Apply heat to the injection site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After administering a subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin (Lovenox) into the abdomen, the nurse should remove the needle and engage the needle safety device. Rubbing the injection site after the needle is withdrawn is not recommended as it may cause irritation and bruising. Having the client maintain a side-lying position for at least five minutes is unnecessary for a subcutaneous injection into the abdomen. Applying heat to the injection site is not indicated after administering enoxaparin subcutaneously; it could increase the risk of bleeding or bruising at the injection site.

3. When assessing a client with early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness and which of the following symptoms?

• A. cool, clammy skin
• B. bradycardia
• C. tachycardia
• D. eupnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client has early impairment of oxygen perfusion, such as in a pulmonary embolus, the nurse should expect to find restlessness, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and cool skin. Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen delivery to tissues. Cool, clammy skin (choice A) is more indicative of impaired oxygen perfusion compared to warm, dry skin. Bradycardia (choice B) is less likely to occur in the early stages and is more common in severe cases. Eupnea (choice D) refers to normal respirations in rate and depth, which may not be altered in early impairment of oxygen perfusion.

4. A newborn baby exhibits a reflex that includes hand opening, abducted, and extended extremities following a jarring motion. Which of the following correctly identifies the reflex?

• A. ATNR reflex
• B. Startle reflex
• C. Grasping reflex
• D. Moro reflex

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is the correct answer. This reflex is characterized by the baby's response to a sudden head movement or loud noise, causing them to open their hands, extend their arms, and then bring them back towards their body. The characteristics mentioned in the question - hand opening, abducted, and extended extremities following a jarring motion - align with the Moro reflex. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR) involves the head turning to one side with extension of the same side's arm and leg, not the described characteristics. The grasping reflex involves the baby's response to touch on the palm, causing them to grasp an object. While the Moro reflex is often referred to as the startle reflex due to its response to sudden stimuli, the specific characteristics described in the question match the Moro reflex.

5. The physician wants to know if a client is tolerating their total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following laboratory tests is likely to be ordered?

• A. triglyceride level
• B. liver function tests
• C. a glucose tolerance test
• D. a complete blood count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The liver is crucial in processing nutrients and medications received through total parenteral nutrition. Liver function tests assess various enzymes produced by the liver, including prothrombin time/partial prothrombin time, serum glutamic oxaloacetic and pyruvic transaminases, gamma glutamyl transpeptidase, albumin, and alkaline phosphatase. Monitoring these enzymes can help determine if the liver is functioning properly to metabolize the nutrients from TPN. Triglyceride levels (Choice A) primarily evaluate the body's ability to clear fats, not specifically related to TPN tolerance. A glucose tolerance test (Choice C) is used to diagnose diabetes by measuring blood glucose levels after ingesting a glucose-rich solution, not directly related to TPN tolerance. A complete blood count (Choice D) assesses blood components such as red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but does not provide specific information about TPN tolerance.

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