Nursing Elites

1. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:

• A. one commercially prepared glucose tablet
• B. two hard candies
• C. 4-6 ounces of fruit juice
• D. 2-3 teaspoons of honey

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10-15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2-3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4-6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

2. Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

• A. "The physician will probably want to admit you for observation."?
• B. "The physician will probably order bedrest at home."?
• C. "These are really dangerous signs."?
• D. "The physician will probably prescribe some medicine for you."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision. Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

3. During a stress test, a patient complains of severe chest pain. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to relieve this discomfort?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Diazoxide
• C. Procardia
• D. Mannitol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate medication to relieve severe ischemic chest pain during a stress test is Procardia. Procardia, a calcium channel blocker, is effective in quickly alleviating chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Aspirin, although important for antiplatelet effects, is not the best choice for immediate relief of severe chest pain. Diazoxide is a vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, not for acute chest pain. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure, not for chest pain relief.

4. A client with sleep apnea has been ordered a CPAP machine. Which action could the RN delegate to a nursing assistant?

• A. Reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime
• B. Obtaining every three-hour oxygen saturation levels
• C. Teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine
• D. Assessing for fatigue or depression caused by poor sleep

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is reminding the client to apply the CPAP at bedtime. This task can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant as it involves a simple and routine reminder. Option B, obtaining oxygen saturation levels, requires a higher level of training and interpretation of results, making it more appropriate for an RN. Option C, teaching the client how to turn on the CPAP machine, involves educating the client and ensuring proper use of medical equipment, which is within the RN's scope of practice. Option D, assessing for fatigue or depression, requires a comprehensive evaluation that involves interpreting symptoms and identifying underlying causes, making it more suitable for an RN to address.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's ECG report. The patient exhibits a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and short QT interval. Which of the following medications can cause all of the above effects?

• A. Morphine
• B. Atropine
• C. Procardia
• D. Digitalis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Digitalis. Digitalis is known to cause a flat T wave, depressed ST segment, and a short QT interval on an ECG report. These ECG changes are characteristic of digitalis toxicity. Morphine is not typically associated with these ECG changes. Atropine is more commonly linked to increasing heart rate rather than causing these specific ECG abnormalities. Procardia is a calcium channel blocker that does not typically produce the described ECG findings. Therefore, Digitalis is the most likely medication causing these effects in the patient.

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