Nursing Elites

1. When a client informs the nurse that he is experiencing hypoglycemia, the nurse provides immediate intervention by providing:

• A. one commercially prepared glucose tablet
• B. two hard candies
• C. 4-6 ounces of fruit juice
• D. 2-3 teaspoons of honey

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention for hypoglycemia is to provide 10-15 grams of fast-acting simple carbohydrates orally if the client is conscious and able to swallow. This can be achieved by giving 2-3 teaspoons of honey. Honey is a quick source of simple sugars that can rapidly raise blood glucose levels. Commercially prepared glucose tablets or 4-6 ounces of fruit juice are also appropriate options. However, adding sugar to fruit juice is unnecessary as the natural fruit sugar in juice already provides enough simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels. Hard candies are not the best choice for immediate intervention in hypoglycemia as they may not provide a sufficient amount of fast-acting carbohydrates needed to raise blood sugar levels quickly.

2. A patient's nurse taking a history notes complaints of SOB and weakness in the lower extremities. The patient has a history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension. Which of the following may be occurring?

• A. The patient may be developing CHF
• B. The patient may be having a MI
• C. The patient may be developing COPD
• D. The patient may be having an onset of PVD

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of shortness of breath (SOB) and weakness in the lower extremities, along with a history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension, are suggestive of a myocardial infarction (MI). It is important to note that MI can present with a variety of symptoms, including those affecting the respiratory system and muscle weakness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the patient's symptoms are more indicative of a myocardial infarction rather than congestive heart failure (CHF), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), or peripheral vascular disease (PVD).

3. A 14-year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse's first response be?

• A. Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.
• B. Remove other patients from the area for added safety.
• C. Ask the patient, "What is making you mad?"?
• D. Ask the patient, "Why are you behaving this way? Have you thought about what may help you calm down?"?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is agitated and yelling, the first response should be to create an atmosphere of seclusion for the safety of the patient and others. Seclusion is a standard procedure to help manage aggressive behaviors and prevent harm. Options B, C, and D are not appropriate in this scenario. Removing other patients may not address the immediate safety concern, asking the patient what is making them mad can escalate the situation, and questioning why the patient is behaving that way may not help in managing the current agitation. Therefore, seclusion is the recommended course of action in this scenario to ensure the safety and well-being of all involved.

4. A client complaining of chest pain is prescribed an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid). After the infusion is initiated, the occurrence of which symptom warrants the nurse discontinuing an intravenous infusion of nitroglycerin?

• A. Frontal headache
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Decrease in intensity of chest pain
• D. Cool clammy skin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Cool clammy skin.' This assessment finding indicates decreased cardiac output that could result from excessive vasodilation. Cool clammy skin is a sign of poor perfusion, suggesting that the blood pressure might be dropping too low. Discontinuing the nitroglycerin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Choice A, 'Frontal headache,' is a common side effect of nitroglycerin but not a reason to discontinue the infusion unless severe or persistent. Choice B, 'Orthostatic hypotension,' may occur as a side effect of nitroglycerin but does not necessarily warrant discontinuation unless severe. Choice C, 'Decrease in intensity of chest pain,' is actually an expected therapeutic response to nitroglycerin and indicates improved myocardial perfusion, so it is not a reason to stop the infusion.

5. A pregnant Asian client who is experiencing morning sickness wants to take ginger to relieve the nausea. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. "I will call your physician to see if we can start some ginger."?
• B. "We don't use home remedies in this clinic."?
• C. "Herbs are not as effective as regular medicines."?
• D. "Just eat some dry crackers instead."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to offer to consult with the physician regarding the use of ginger, showing cultural sensitivity. Ginger is known to help relieve nausea, especially in pregnancy. Choice A is the correct answer as it respects the client's preference for a home remedy and involves the physician in the decision-making process. Choice B dismisses the client's preference for a home remedy without exploring its potential benefits. Choice C makes a generalized statement discrediting the effectiveness of herbs, which is not evidence-based and disregards the client's beliefs. Choice D offers an alternative without addressing the client's specific request, failing to acknowledge the client's autonomy and cultural background.

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