Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine?

• A. Assessing the patient's blood pressure.
• B. Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate.
• C. Checking the patient's pain level.
• D. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.

2. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client's admitting diagnosis?

• A. An enlarged, distended abdomen.
• B. Crackles in the bases of both lungs.
• C. Jugular vein distension.
• D. Peripheral edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crackles in the bases of the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation, which is common in left-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood from the lungs to the rest of the body, leading to a backup of fluid in the lungs. This results in crackles heard on auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific to left-sided heart failure. An enlarged, distended abdomen may indicate ascites or liver congestion. Jugular vein distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, and peripheral edema is a sign of fluid accumulation in the tissues, which can occur in both types of heart failure but is not as specific to left-sided heart failure as crackles in the lungs.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

• A. Headaches
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Superinfection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.

4. After teaching a client with early polycystic kidney disease (PKD) about nutritional therapy, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take a laxative every night before going to bed.
• B. I must increase my intake of dietary fiber and fluids.
• C. I shall only use salt when I am cooking my own food.
• D. I’ll eat white bread to minimize gastrointestinal gas.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Clients with PKD often experience constipation, which can be managed by increasing their intake of dietary fiber and fluids. This helps promote bowel regularity. Laxatives should be used cautiously and not as a routine solution. Choice A is incorrect as regular laxative use is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as a low-salt diet is typically advised for clients with PKD, not just limiting salt while cooking. Choice D is incorrect as white bread is low in fiber and not beneficial for managing constipation, which is common in PKD.

5. A nurse reviews a female client’s laboratory results. Which result from the client’s urinalysis should the nurse recognize as abnormal?

• A. pH 5.6
• B. Ketone bodies present
• C. Specific gravity of 1.020
• D. Clear and yellow color

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ketone bodies present. Ketone bodies in urine indicate abnormal metabolism, specifically the incomplete breakdown of fatty acids. Normally, there should be no ketones present in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when the body uses fat sources instead of glucose for cellular energy. A pH range between 4.6 and 8, a specific gravity between 1.005 and 1.030, and clear yellow color in urine are considered normal findings for a female client’s urinalysis. Therefore, options A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not indicative of abnormal results in the urinalysis.

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