HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. What is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine?
- A. Assessing the patient's blood pressure.
- B. Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate.
- C. Checking the patient's pain level.
- D. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.
2. When working with a large population of African-American clients at a community health center, which priority assessment should a nurse include?
- A. Measure height and weight.
- B. Assess blood pressure.
- C. Observe for any signs of abuse.
- D. Ask about medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing blood pressure is the priority assessment when working with a population of African-American clients due to the high prevalence of hypertension in this group. African Americans have a higher risk of hypertension, which can lead to complications like end-stage renal disease. Monitoring blood pressure allows for the early detection and management of hypertension. While measuring height and weight, observing for signs of abuse, and asking about medications are important assessments, assessing blood pressure is crucial in this context to address the specific health needs of African-American clients.
3. Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, which actions should a nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours.
- B. Obtain coagulation study results.
- C. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position.
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the nurse should ensure that the client is kept NPO for 4 to 6 hours to prevent aspiration during the procedure. Obtaining coagulation study results is crucial to assess the risk of bleeding during and after the biopsy. Strict bedrest in a supine position is not necessary before the procedure. It is important to note that blood pressure medications should be carefully managed, but it is not a pre-procedure action. Keeping the client on bedrest or assessing for blood in the urine are interventions that are more relevant post-procedure to monitor for complications.
4. The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. I can continue to take an aspirin every 4 to 8 hours for my pain.
- B. My weight should be maintained at a body mass index of 30.
- C. Smoking should be stopped as soon as possible.
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Both statements A and B indicate a lack of understanding of CKD prevention. Taking aspirin every 4 to 8 hours can lead to kidney damage, and maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is considered overweight, which can increase the risk of developing CKD. Statement C, on the other hand, correctly addresses smoking cessation, which is crucial in preventing CKD. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with CKD prevention strategies, making option D the correct choice.
5. A nurse is assessing the chest tube drainage system of a postoperative client who has undergone a right upper lobectomy. The closed drainage system contains 300 mL of bloody drainage, and the nurse notes intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber. One hour after the initial assessment, the nurse notes that the bubbling in the water seal chamber is now constant, and the client appears dyspneic. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should first assess:
- A. The client’s vital signs
- B. The amount of drainage
- C. The client’s lung sounds
- D. The chest tube connections
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client’s dyspnea is most likely related to an air leak caused by a loose connection in the chest tube system. Checking the chest tube connections should be the initial action because correcting an air leak can quickly resolve the client's symptoms. If a leak is found and corrected, the dyspnea should improve. Assessing the client’s vital signs (Option A) is important, but addressing the potential cause of dyspnea takes precedence. Monitoring the amount of drainage (Option B) is necessary for assessing the client's overall condition, but in this case, the dyspnea is likely due to an air leak. Checking the client’s lung sounds (Option C) is essential for respiratory assessment, but addressing the air leak should be the immediate priority to ensure adequate lung expansion and oxygenation.
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