Nursing Elites

1. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• C. Sedimentation rate.
• D. Urine specific gravity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. A complete blood count
• B. BUN and creatinine
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

3. A patient is being treated for shock after a motor vehicle accident. The provider orders 6% dextran 75 to be given intravenously. The nurse should expect which outcome as the result of this infusion?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Improved blood oxygenation
• C. Increased interstitial fluid
• D. Stabilization of heart rate and blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 6% Dextran 75 is a high molecular-weight colloidal solution used to treat shock from burns or trauma. Colloids like 6% dextran 75 are plasma expanders that help increase blood volume, leading to improved heart rate and blood pressure stabilization. The infusion of plasma expanders does not typically decrease urine output. It primarily aims to stabilize circulation rather than affect blood oxygenation or increase interstitial fluid levels.

4. After a urography, a client is instructed by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid direct contact with your urine for 24 hours until the dye clears.
• B. You may experience dribbling of urine for several weeks post-procedure.
• C. Drink at least 3 liters of fluids today to assist in dye elimination.
• D. Your skin may turn slightly yellow from the dye used in this procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is important for the client to increase fluid intake to aid in the rapid elimination of the potentially nephrotoxic dye used in urography. This instruction will help prevent any adverse effects related to the dye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the dye used in urography is not radioactive, so there is no need to avoid direct contact with urine, urine dribbling is not a common post-procedure occurrence, and the dye should not cause the client's skin to change color.

5. The patient has a heart rate of 98 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 82/58 mm Hg, is lethargic, complaining of muscle weakness, and has had gastroenteritis for several days. Based on these findings, which sodium value would the nurse expect?

• A. 126 mEq/L
• B. 140 mEq/L
• C. 145 mEq/L
• D. 158 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation of tachycardia, hypotension, lethargy, muscle weakness, and gastroenteritis suggests hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is characterized by a serum sodium level below the normal range of 135-145 mEq/L. A serum sodium level of 126 mEq/L falls significantly below this range, indicating hyponatremia. Choice B (140 mEq/L) and Choice C (145 mEq/L) are within the normal range for serum sodium levels and would not explain the patient's symptoms. Choice D (158 mEq/L) is above the normal range and would indicate hypernatremia, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation.

Similar Questions