Nursing Elites

1. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• C. Sedimentation rate.
• D. Urine specific gravity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

3. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Calculate total intake and output for the last 24 hours.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.

4. A client with a history of type 1 diabetes Mellitus (DM) and asthma is readmitted to the unit for the third time in two months with a current fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 325mg/dl (18mmol/L SI). The client describes to the nurse not understanding why the blood glucose level continues to be out of control. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Have the client describe a typical day at work, home, and social activities
• B. Determine if the client is using a new insulin needle for each administration
• C. Evaluate the client's asthma medications that can elevate blood glucose
• D. Have the client demonstrate the technique used to monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the client describe a typical day at work, home, and social activities. By understanding the client's daily routine, the nurse can gain valuable insights into lifestyle factors that may be impacting blood glucose control. This information is essential for identifying potential triggers or patterns contributing to the elevated blood sugar levels. Option B, determining if the client is using a new insulin needle for each administration, focuses more on the technical aspect of insulin delivery and is not directly related to daily activities affecting blood glucose levels. Option C, evaluating the client's asthma medications that can elevate blood glucose, could be relevant but is not as directly linked to the client's lifestyle choices as option A. Option D, having the client demonstrate the technique for monitoring blood glucose levels, is important for assessing their skills but does not provide information on daily activities that may be influencing blood sugar levels.

5. The nurse is monitoring a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. The nurse should report which of the following findings immediately?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Pulse rate of 72 bpm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment is concerning in a client undergoing hemodialysis with chronic renal failure as it may indicate fluid overload. This finding requires immediate reporting and intervention to prevent complications such as fluid retention, pulmonary edema, or exacerbation of heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are not findings that require immediate attention in this context. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding during hemodialysis, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within a normal range for many clients, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm is also within the expected range for most individuals.

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