Nursing Elites

1. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• C. Sedimentation rate.
• D. Urine specific gravity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

2. Which of the following medications is typically used to treat asthma?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Metformin
• C. Albuterol
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Albuterol. Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat asthma by relaxing the muscles around the airways, helping to relieve symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Aspirin (Choice A) is not typically used to treat asthma and can actually trigger asthma symptoms in some individuals. Metformin (Choice B) is a medication for managing type 2 diabetes and is not indicated for asthma treatment. Lisinopril (Choice D) is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor primarily used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, not asthma.

3. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about fluid restrictions by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit my salt intake.
• B. I should limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. I can skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
• D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions. Skipping dialysis can lead to serious complications and worsen the client's condition. It is crucial for clients to understand the importance of adhering to their dialysis schedule for optimal management of chronic renal failure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they demonstrate understanding of fluid restrictions, the need to limit fluid intake to prevent overload, and the importance of medication compliance, respectively. These statements show appropriate knowledge and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

4. The healthcare provider caring for a patient who will receive penicillin to treat an infection asks the patient about previous drug reactions. The patient reports having had a rash when taking amoxicillin (Amoxil). The healthcare provider will contact the provider to

• A. discuss giving a smaller dose of penicillin.
• B. discuss using erythromycin (E-mycin) instead of penicillin.
• C. request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• D. suggest that the patient receive cefuroxime (Ceftin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient reports a previous rash with amoxicillin, which is a type of penicillin, there is a concern for a penicillin allergy. In such cases, using an alternative antibiotic like erythromycin, which is not a penicillin, is the appropriate approach to avoid potential cross-reactivity and allergic reactions. Giving smaller doses of penicillin does not address the underlying allergy issue and can still lead to severe hypersensitivity reactions. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to manage allergic reactions but should not be the first choice in changing the antibiotic. While some patients allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime, it is not the best immediate alternative in this scenario.

5. What action should the nurse take for a female patient experiencing vaginal itching and discharge while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) (Bactrim, Septra) for a urinary tract infection?

• A. Ask the patient if she might be pregnant.
• B. Reassure the patient that this is a normal side effect.
• C. Report a possible superinfection to the provider.
• D. Suspect that the patient is having a hematologic reaction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report a possible superinfection to the healthcare provider. Vaginal itching and discharge can indicate a superinfection, which is a secondary infection that can occur while taking antibiotics. It is essential to notify the provider so that appropriate treatment can be initiated. Asking about pregnancy is not relevant in this context as vaginal itching and discharge are not typical signs of pregnancy. Simply reassuring the patient that these symptoms are normal side effects is inadequate as they may indicate a more serious issue like a superinfection. Suspecting a hematologic reaction is not warranted based on the symptoms described.

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