Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary action of insulin in the body?

• A. To lower blood pressure.
• B. To promote the absorption of glucose into cells.
• C. To increase blood glucose levels.
• D. To decrease blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To promote the absorption of glucose into cells. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect as insulin does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C is inaccurate as insulin works to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because insulin's primary role is to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.

2. A client is being prepared for a colonoscopy. Into which position does the nurse assist the client for the procedure?

• A. Left Sims' position
• B. Lithotomy position
• C. Knee-chest position
• D. Right Sims' position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a colonoscopy, the client is positioned in the left Sims' position. This position is chosen as it optimally utilizes the client’s anatomy to facilitate the introduction of the colonoscope. The lithotomy position (Choice B) is commonly used for gynecological exams, not colonoscopies. The knee-chest position (Choice C) is typically employed for rectal examinations or certain surgical procedures, not colonoscopies. The right Sims' position (Choice D) is a less common position for colonoscopy compared to the left Sims' position.

3. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake.
• B. Have small frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals.
• C. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods.
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake is the most appropriate diet instruction for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis. High-fiber foods help prevent constipation and promote bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications such as diverticulitis. Adequate fluid intake is crucial to soften stool and aid in digestion. Choice B, having small frequent meals and sitting up after meals, may be beneficial for some gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to diverticulosis. Choice C, eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods, is not necessary for diverticulosis management. Choice D, consuming a soft diet with increased milk and milk products, may worsen symptoms in diverticulosis due to the potential for increased gas production and bloating.

4. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

5. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

• A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
• B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
• C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
• D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

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