Nursing Elites

1. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?

• A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
• D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a fever. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an antipyretic as prescribed.
• B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
• D. Continue the transfusion and reassess in 15 minutes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial to prevent further reactions and ensure prompt intervention. Administering an antipyretic (Choice A) may mask symptoms and delay appropriate treatment. Slowing the rate of the transfusion (Choice C) might not address the underlying cause of the fever. Continuing the transfusion and reassessing in 15 minutes (Choice D) could worsen the client's condition if there is a severe reaction occurring.

3. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Check the client's blood pressure.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
• C. Assess the client's neurological status.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

4. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
• B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
• C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
• D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.

5. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the health care provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occur.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.

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