Nursing Elites

1. After repositioning an immobile client, the nurse observes an area of hyperemia. What action should the nurse take to assess for blanching?

• A. Document the presence in the client’s record.
• B. Apply light pressure over the area.
• C. Apply heat to the area and reassess in 30 minutes.
• D. Apply cold compresses to reduce the redness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take to assess for blanching in an area of hyperemia is to apply light pressure over the area. Blanching is the temporary whitening of the skin when pressure is applied and then released, indicating that the blood flow is returning to the area. Applying light pressure helps in determining if the hyperemic area blanches, ensuring that blood flow is adequate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because documenting findings, applying heat, or using cold compresses are not appropriate actions for assessing blanching in an area of hyperemia.

2. A client on mechanical ventilation is experiencing high-pressure alarms. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
• B. Assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction.
• C. Reposition the client to relieve pressure.
• D. Suction the client's airway.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction. When a client on mechanical ventilation experiences high-pressure alarms, the first action should be to check for any potential obstructions in the airway, which can trigger the alarms. Checking the oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but not the priority when dealing with high-pressure alarms. Repositioning the client (Choice C) may be necessary later but should not be the initial action. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) should only be done after assessing for and addressing any obstructions in the endotracheal tube.

3. A young male client with an above-knee amputation (AKA) reports that his 'right foot is aching.' What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb.
• B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
• C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
• D. Offer to assist the client to a quieter location to relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because gabapentin is prescribed to treat phantom limb pain, which is common in individuals with amputations. Option A is not the most important intervention at this time since the client is reporting physical pain, not emotional distress. Option C is not appropriate because the client is reporting aching in the foot, not the stump. Option D does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain that needs to be managed.

4. A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an antihistamine as prescribed.
• B. Stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Slow the infusion rate and monitor the client.
• D. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.

5. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

• A. Decreased liver enzymes.
• B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
• C. High bilirubin levels.
• D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

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