Nursing Elites

1. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

2. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

3. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

4. A client states, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client needs further information on how to use the diaphragm?

• A. 'I need to reapply spermicidal cream with repeated intercourse.'
• B. 'The diaphragm needs to be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion.'
• C. 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.'
• D. 'The diaphragm can be inserted as long as 6 hours before intercourse.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the statement, 'I can leave the diaphragm in place as long as I want after intercourse.' This statement indicates a lack of understanding about the correct use of the diaphragm. The diaphragm must be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness and reduce the risk of pregnancy. Leaving the diaphragm in place for an extended period can lead to toxic shock syndrome. Choice A is correct as spermicidal cream needs to be reapplied before each act of intercourse for optimal contraceptive efficacy. Choice B is a correct statement as the diaphragm should be filled with spermicidal cream before insertion to increase its effectiveness. Choice D is also accurate as the diaphragm can be inserted up to 6 hours before intercourse to allow time for proper placement and effectiveness.

5. A Roman Catholic client is preparing to have magnetic resonance imaging. He wants to wear his metal crucifix pendant while he is receiving the test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. "Because it gives you comfort, you may wear it."?
• B. "It is a violation of religious rights to forbid it."?
• C. "I am sorry, but it is not safe for you to wear the crucifix during this test."?
• D. "You may wear it because it is important to you."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: No metal objects may be worn while receiving magnetic resonance imaging due to safety risks involved with the strong magnet. The correct response by the nurse should prioritize the safety of the client. Allowing the client to wear the metal crucifix poses a risk of injury or interference with the imaging process. Option A is not appropriate as safety takes precedence over comfort in this situation. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the safety concerns associated with wearing metal objects during an MRI. Option D is also incorrect as it fails to acknowledge the safety issue involved and instead focuses solely on the importance to the client. It is important for the nurse to offer alternative forms of spiritual support that do not pose a risk during the MRI procedure.

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