using the flacc pain scale how should the lpn document pain for a non verbal client with these findings faceoccasional grimacing legsrelaxed activitys
Logo

Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Safe and Effective Care Environment Nclex PN Questions

1. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

2. In a disaster situation, the nurse assessing a diabetic client on insulin assesses for all of the following except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a disaster situation, when assessing a diabetic client on insulin, the nurse needs to consider various factors. Diabetic signs and symptoms, nutritional status, and availability of insulin are crucial aspects to assess for appropriate management during a crisis. However, bleeding problems are not directly related to diabetes or insulin therapy. Therefore, assessing for bleeding problems is not a priority in this context. Choice C, bleeding problems, is the correct answer as it is not typically associated with diabetes, unlike the other options provided.

3. What action should the emergency triage nurse take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the emergency triage nurse to take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting is to seclude the client from other clients and visitors. These symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, a highly infectious disease. By secluding the client, the nurse can prevent the potential spread of the infection to others. Donning personal protective equipment, including gown, gloves, and a mask, is crucial when providing care to the client, but the immediate priority is to prevent the spread of infection by isolating the client. Placing the client in isolation until further assessment is completed ensures that the client is kept away from others until a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established, reducing the risk of transmission. Performing no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis is inappropriate as immediate isolation is necessary in suspected cases of highly infectious diseases like tuberculosis.

4. A safety measure to implement when transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When transferring a client with hemiparesis from a bed to a wheelchair, it is crucial to ensure their safety. The correct safety measure involves moving the wheelchair close to the client's bed and having the client stand and pivot on his unaffected extremity to the wheelchair. This method provides support with the unaffected limb, reducing the risk of falls and promoting a safer transfer. Choice A is incorrect because walking the client is unsafe and not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as pivoting the client on his affected extremity can lead to injury or falls due to weakness or lack of control. Choice D is incorrect as it puts the client at risk by requiring them to push their body, which may not be feasible or safe for someone with hemiparesis.

5. A discharge planning nurse is making arrangements for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous infusion of opioids to be placed in a long-term care facility. The family prefers a facility in its neighborhood to facilitate visiting. The neighborhood facility has never cared for a client with this type of need. What is the most appropriate action by the discharge planning nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority is the safety and well-being of the client. The neighborhood facility's lack of experience in caring for a client with an epidural catheter for continuous opioid infusion raises concerns about the quality of care they can provide. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the discharge planning nurse is to explain the situation to the client and family and seek another long-term care facility that can provide the necessary care. Option A, arranging for immediate in-services, may not be feasible or timely, considering the urgent need for appropriate care. Option C, encouraging the family to hire private duty nurses, does not ensure the facility's overall capability to manage the client's complex needs. Option D, 'None of the above,' is not the best choice as the client's safety should be the priority in this situation.

Similar Questions

What is the best definition of ethics in nursing?
When are pressure ulcers most likely to occur?
A client with a closed chest tube drainage system accidentally disconnects the chest tube while being turned by the nurse. What should the nurse do first?
To remove hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?
Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

Access More Features

NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses