Nursing Elites

1. How should the LPN document pain for a non-verbal client using the FLACC pain scale with these findings?

• A. 1
• B. 4
• C. 3
• D. 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '4'. The FLACC pain scale assesses pain in non-verbal patients based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. In this case, the client exhibits occasional grimacing (1 point), relaxed legs (0 points), squirming (1 point), moans and whimpers (1 point), and is distractible (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total pain score of 4. Therefore, the LPN should document a pain score of 4 for this non-verbal client. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the total pain score based on the given findings.

2. The nurse is transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed. Which is the correct procedure?

• A. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the unaffected limb.
• B. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the affected limb.
• C. Push the client toward the bed, and pivot him on the affected limb.
• D. Stand the client on both legs, and push him toward the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed, the correct procedure is to pull the client toward you, which reduces workload force. By pivoting the client on the unaffected limb, strength is maintained to support the affected limb while moving towards the bed. Choice A is correct because it ensures a safe and effective transfer technique. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they involve incorrect positioning and movements that could potentially harm the client or increase the risk of injury. Pulling the client towards you puts less strain on your back and reduces the risk of injury. Pivoting on the unaffected limb ensures better support for the client's affected limb during the transfer process.

3. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

4. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?

• A. "Make it a stat delivery."?
• B. "Please do it as soon as you can after break."?
• C. "This client is delirious, and we're worried about urinary sepsis."?
• D. "Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. In this scenario, the most appropriate direction is to ensure the urine specimen is collected promptly and delivered to the lab immediately. Choice A is too vague and does not specify the urgency required. Choice B does not emphasize the immediate need for the specimen to be delivered. Choice C introduces unnecessary medical information that is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant and may cause confusion. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it provides clear instructions for immediate action without room for misunderstanding.

5. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?

• A. The client was repositioned on his right side at 1100.
• B. The client was bathed, and the skin was assessed head-to-toe at 0900 with no abnormal findings.
• C. The client's PEG tube was changed 6 months ago.
• D. The client's indwelling urinary catheter was last changed 5 days ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.

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